User: Imani Blackman In Course: Earth-Space Science V11 ( 3290) InstructorMs. Christine BrownWARNING: You must not leave this exam form! If you try to click back into this exam again prior to submitting, your access to it will be denied!S1 Our Universe Module ExamWarning: There is a checkbox at the bottom of the exam form that you MUST check prior to submitting this exam. Failure to do so may cause your work to be lost.Top of FormTHIS IS A TIMED EXAM!Click to see time remainingQuestion 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.03]A star is observed from two positions of Earth in its orbit, in summer and winter. Which of these is the best method to calculate the approximate distance of the star from Earth?measure the parallax and use it in calculationsmeasure the red shift of emitted light and use it in calculationsuse doppler effect to calculate the shift in light traveling from star to Earth in winteruse doppler effect to calculate the shift in light traveling from star to Earth in summerQuestion 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]The Big Bang Theory is accepted at present as the best explanation of the development of the universe over time. Which of these statements is correct about this theory?It will remain unchanged in the future.It may change due to new scientific evidences.It will be proved invalid by scientific investigation.It may have been tested by only one group of scientists.Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]Two groups of scientists got different results while studying about the expansion of the universe. What do the two results most likely indicate?the ideas of both groups of scientists are invalidall scientists do not have access to equally accurate datathere are several testable ideas to describe the origin of the universeit is impossible to have a single acceptable theory about the universeQuestion 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]The picture below shows the position of Earth and two stars.  Star 2 is 52 light years from Earth and 18 light years from Star 1. If Star 1 explodes as a supernova, in how many years would the explosion be seen from Earth?18345270Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.03]Which of these is the best method to estimate the speed at which a star is moving away from Earth?measure the star’s red shiftmeasure the star’s blue shiftcalculate the parallax due to changes in Earth’s positioncalculate the pitch due to changes in frequency of lightQuestion 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.03]Which of these properties of a star best determines its life cycle?brightnessmassdensitytemperatureQuestion 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]Infrared radiations are produced when a changing electric field creates alongitudinal wave parallel to itlongitudinal wave perpendicular to itchanging magnetic field parallel to itchanging magnetic field perpendicular to itQuestion 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]Which of these statements is correct for light waves?It does not travel through water.It does not travel through vacuum.It travels fastest through vacuum.It travels fastest through water.Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]The COBE mission and WMAP mission provide evidence to support theHubble’s LawBig Bang TheorySteady State TheoryDoppler EffectQuestion 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.02]X-rays cannot pass through Earth’s atmosphere. Which of these is the best location to place a telescope used to observe x-rays from stars?high-flying aircrafttop of buildingmountainspaceQuestion 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]Based on an experiment, a cosmologist has proposed a new theory to explain the origin of the universe. The theory will be accepted whenits results match with the Big Bang Theorythe experiment gives different data every time it is repeatedits results are repeated and verified by scientists worldwidethe experiment rejects all old theories on the origin of the universeQuestion 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]Two stars, Star 1 and Star 2, are at almost equal distances from Earth. The table below shows the masses of the two stars.Name of StarMass of Star (in million solar masses)Star 13.61Star 23.59Which of these statements is most likely correct about the stars?Earth exerts almost equal gravitation force on both the stars.Earth exerts greater gravitation force on Star 2 than on Star 1.Star 1 attracts Star 2 with a greater gravitational force than Star 2 attracts Star 1.Star 2 attracts Star 1 with a greater gravitational force than Star 1 attracts Star 2.Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.03]The pictures below show the wavelengths and intensities of electromagnetic radiations emitted by three stars, Star 1, Star 2, and Star 3.  Which of these is most likely to happen if Star 2 becomes cooler?its peak will rise higher than Star 1its peak will rise higher than Star 3it will look more like Star 3it will look more like Star 1Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.02] NASA’s space shuttle program in Florida will end in 2011. Which of these would be the most likely outcome of this event on the locations near the space center?increase in number of restaurants and decrease in unemploymentincrease in tourism and decrease in use of space technologies in homesincrease in unemployment and decrease in profit made by local businessesincrease in profit made by construction companies and decrease in use of space technologies in homesQuestion 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]The diagram below shows the distance traveled by two light waves in 1 second.  Based on the diagram, which of these conclusions is correct about the two waves?They have equal frequencies.They have equal wavelengths.The amplitude of Wave 2 is double the amplitude of Wave 1.The frequency of Wave 2 is double the frequency of Wave 1.Question 16 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]The table below compares three galaxies. 123Type of galaxyShapeForce holding it togetherType of matter presentSpiralPinwheelGravitationalStars, gas, and dustEllipticalRound or ovalElectricalElectrons and protonsIrregularUndefinedGravitationalStars, gas, and dustThe information about galaxies is correct only inColumn 1Column 2Column 1 and Column 3Column 2 and Column 3Question 17 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]The picture below shows a galaxy with an elongated center.  © NASA What type of galaxy is shown in the picture?spiralellipticalirregularbarred spiralQuestion 18 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]One scientist is using an electromagnetic wave to map the dust between stars. The electromagnetic wave has shorter wavelength than radio waves but longer wavelength than visible light. What electromagnetic wave is the scientist using?X-rayInfrared lightGamma rayUltraviolet radiationQuestion 19 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.03]The table below shows the initial masses of four stars.Name of StarStar 1Star 2Star 3Star 4Initial mass of star (in Solar mass)90.950.3Which of these stars will stay on the main sequence for the longest time?Star 1Star 2Star 3Star 4Question 20 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.01]Which of these waves has the greatest wavelength?Question 21 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)[OU.04]Which of these models would best represent the Big Bang Theory?burst an inflated balloon with a pinblow a balloon with spots marked on itpress a piece of raisin bread in the palmkeep a raisin bread in the open for a weekQuestion 22 (Essay Worth 3 points)[OU.02] In your own words, explain why the period between 1960 and 1969 is regarded as the busiest period in space exploration history. What are two technological advancements or discoveries from this time period?  Question 23 (Essay Worth 3 points)[OU.04] In your own words, explain how the Doppler Effect led to the development of the Big Bang Theory.  YOU MUST CHECK THE BOX BELOW PRIOR TO SUBMITTING YOUR EXAM!Check this box to indicate you are ready to submit your examBottom of FormTop of FormCurrent course:Bottom of FormInstructors monitor ALL areas of a student’s accountStudent e-mail accounts are to be used for FLVS course-related email only and not for general introductions or spamming of people in your address book.Please remember to click the Logoff link when you have completed your work in the course.Related Help Center TopicsTaking Exams Proctored Exams Question Types
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Task 7-The Ice Bucket Challenge

  1. Draw two water molecules and label the Hydrogen and Oxygen atoms.
  2. A bug can walk on water because of what property of water?
  3. Which phase of water has the largest distance between water molecules: Gas, Liquid, or Solid?
  4. Which phase of water has the smallest distance between water molecules: Gas, Liquid, or Solid?
  5. What term is used to describe when water turns from liquid to gas?
  6. What term is used to describe when water turns from gas to liquid?
  7. What term is used to describe when water turns from liquid to solid?
  8. What term is used to describe when water turns from solid to liquid?
  9. At the beach, on a hot day, in which substance are molecules moving with the highest internal velocity: Sand, Water, or Asphalt?
  10. What happens to freshwater density when temperature rises from 10℃ to 20℃?
  11. What happens to freshwater density when temperature descends from 20℃ to 10℃?
  12. What happens to freshwater density when temperature rises from 1to 4℃?
  13. What happens to freshwater density when temperature descends from 4℃ to 1℃?
  14. What happens to seawater density when temperature rises from 1℃ to 4℃?
  15. What happens to seawater density when temperature descends from 4℃ to 1℃?
  16. What is the freezing point of freshwater?
  17. What is the boiling point of freshwater?
  18. What happens to water’s freezing point when salinity increases?
  19. What happens to water’s boiling point when salinity increases?
  20. Why do some people add salt (increase the salinity) to the water before boiling pasta noodles?
  21. What happens to the heat of the surroundings during evaporation?
  22. What happens to the heat of the surroundings during precipitation?
  23. What happens when the relative humidity of air equals 100%?
  24. What happens when the relative humidity of air equals 90% and the air warms?
  25. What happens when the relative humidity of air equals 90% and the air cools?
  26. Based on the “Selective Color Absorption Underwater” figure, what color of light is absorbed first in the open ocean?
  27. What color of light lasts the longest and thus gives this water its color?  Picture is attached
  28. White light contains all colors of the spectrum (Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet). What color(s) does green pigment (chlorophyll) absorb?
  29. What color does green pigment (chlorophyll) reflect?
  30. Which of these water types has the deepest photic zone (light travels deepest)?
    • Hot water, Cold water, or No difference
    • Water with lots of sediment, Clear of sediment, or No difference
    • Water with lots of plankton, Desert water (no life), or No difference
       ***** INCLUDE CITE SOURCES****
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Defining The Visual Arts Wiki

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word wiki entry on the subject of visual arts, in which you define the purpose and language of the visual arts. Imagine that your wiki entry on visual arts is to be included in a university’s wiki about various subjects. Address the following issues:

  • Define visual art.
  • Differentiate the visual arts from other forms of creative expression.
  • List the different media of visual art, such as painting, sculpture, photography, and so on.
  • Define the meaning of historical, social, and aesthetic values and eras in visual art.
  • Discuss factors that influence the way people interpret works of visual art as a cultural value.

Format your wiki entry consistent with APA guidelines.

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SCI 250 Week 1 Identifying Bacteria

Review Figure 6.25 and Table 9.5 of Microbiology.

Access the “Identifying Bacteria” multimedia scenario ( to gain an understanding of the processes involved with identifying and classifying bacteria.

Complete Appendix B located on the student website to classify bacteria and identify a strain of bacteria responsible for a simulated food poisoning outbreak.

University of Phoenix Material

Appendix B – Identifying Bacteria

Bacteria identification is accomplished in a number of ways. Two common tools microbiologists use to identify unknown bacteria include dichotomous key and biochemical tests. The dichotomous key is useful when a microbiologist only needs to know which group an unknown microbe belongs to on a general level. When a microbiologist needs to identify a specific bacterium, biochemical tests are used.


Review the dichotomous key in Figure A, the bacterial shapes in Figure B, and the Gram stain information below. You will use all three to determine to which major group unknown bacteria belong.

Figure A:A dichotomous key for classifying major groups of bacteria.
[Figure 9.4 in Microbiology text]
Figure B: The most common bacterial shapes.[Figure 4.1 in Microbiology text]  Shape Types: Comma, or Club-shaped, rods = VibrioRods = Coccobacillus, BacillusSpherical = CoccusSpiral or Helical = Spirillium, Spirochete 

Gram Stain Results:

Purple = Gram positive

Red = Gram negative

Neither purple nor red = No cell wall (neither Gram positive nor Gram negative)

Review Figure C on the following page. Use Figure C to identify the type of arrangement displayed by the unknown bacteria. Read through the Sample Identification on the following page for an example of how to identify bacterial groups and arrangements using Figures A, B, C, and the Gram stain results.

Figure C: Arrangement of Bacteria
Rods and Clubs
 Single  Strepto-

Snapping  Palisades   Chinese Letters
  Single Diplo-





Sample Identification

After performing a Gram stain, you observe the following under a microscope:

(Cells are stained red.)

·         Begin with item 1 on the dichotomous key (Figure A). Because the organisms are red, they are not Gram-positive. According to the key, continue to item 3.

·         Because the organism is red (not clear or another color), it is indeed Gram-negative according to item 3. The key directs you to item 5.

·         Consider the shape of individual cells for item 5. According to Figure B, the shape type is closest to spherical. (Note: spherical is circular.)

·         The bacteria belong to the Gram-negative cocci group.

·         Now use Figure C to describe arrangement of bacteria. (The bacteria are not rod- or club-shaped, so focus on the cocci arrangements.) Identify the arrangement that is most prominent.

·         The bacteria are arranged in a diplo- fashion.

·         Enter the group and arrangement in the table.


Use Figures A, B, C, and Gram stain results to identify group and arrangement of bacteria. Continue to Part Two after completing the table.

View from MicroscopeGroup of BacteriaArrangement
 (stained red)Gram-negative cocciDiplo-
(stained purple)  
(stained purple)  
(stained red)  
(stained red)  
(stained purple)  
(stained purple)  

PART TWO: CAse study scenario: identify specific bacteria through biochemical testing

To gain an understanding of the processes involved with identifying bacteria through biochemical tests, access Chapter 6 of the text in WileyPlus located on the Week One course page. Once in WileyPlus (Chapter 6), select the “Bacterial Identification by API” link located under the heading, Take Another Look. Once selected, review the information and watch the Flash-animated movie (animation) located within this link. Then, review the following scenario and answer the questions that follow.

Case Study

A recent outbreak of food poisoning has occurred in a community. One possible source of contamination may be the produce that is grown and distributed locally at a farmer’s market. A test sample of some of the produce revealed evidence of bacterial contamination. The bacteria sample was tested in a microbiology lab and showed the results that follow. The laboratory also performed a Gram stain of the isolated bacteria and ran a number of biochemical tests to aid identification. The biochemical tests were assayed using the Analytical Profile Index (API) 20E system for identification of Enterobacteriaceae and other gram-negative bacteria.

Figure 1. Microbiology laboratory results – Unknown bacteria present on produce (API Results)

Figure 2. API Results of Unknown Bacteria in Text Format

Gram stain:
Bacteria: Unknown+++++

Based on Gram stain results and the knowledge that this bacterium caused food poisoning, the laboratory is able to narrow down the possibilities to three bacterial strains. Figure 3 shows the API results:

Figure 3. API Results of Known Bacterial Strains in Text Format

Gram stain:
Bacteria: Salmonella++
Gram stain:
Bacteria: Shigella+
Gram stain:
Bacteria: E. coli+++++


Compare the API biochemical test results in Figure 2 (unknown bacteria from produce) with API test results in Figure 3 (known bacterial strains identified in the gray boxes on the left). The bacterial strain in Figure 3 that matches Figure 2 will identify the bacterial strain causing illness. Based upon your observations, which of the bacteria in Figure 3 is the most likely cause of the food poisoning outbreak?

©2008 University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.

SCI 250 MICROBIOLOGY Solution Links, Click the Following link to BUY

SCI 250 Week 1 Cell Division Template

SCI 250 Week 1 Staining Lab and Quiz

SCI 250 Week 1 Identifying Bacteria

SCI 250 Week 2 Parasitology Matrix

SCI 250 Week 2 Epidemiology Presentation

SCI 250 Week 3 Virus Matrix

SCI 250 Week 3 Team Summary-Microbial Resistance Debate

SCI 250 Week 4 Innate Defenses Matrix

SCI 250 Week 4 Immunity Activity

SCI 250 Week 4 Learning Team-Allergens-The Good and the Bad

SCI 250 Week 5 Integumentary System Lab and Quiz

SCI 250 Week 5 STD Informational Pamphlet – Appendix G–-appendix-g

SCI 250 Week 5 Learning Team Activity-Smallpox-To Eradicate or Not to Eradicate

SCI 250 Week 6 Respiratory System Lab and Quiz

SCI 250 Week 6 Cardiovascular System Lab and Quiz

SCI 250 Week 6 Cardiovascular and Respiratory Systems in Health and Infections

SCI 250 Week 7 Nervous System Lab and Quiz

SCI 250 Week 7 Learning Team Activity-vCJD vs CJD

SCI 250 Week 7 Final Exam
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NURS 6501 Week 2 Assignment

Application: Adaptive Response

As an advanced practice nurse, you will examine patients presenting with a variety of disorders. You must, therefore, understand how the body normally functions so that you can identify when it is reacting to changes. Often, when changes occur in body systems, the body reacts with compensatory mechanisms. These compensatory mechanisms, such as adaptive responses, might be signs and symptoms of alterations or underlying disorders. In the clinical setting, you use these responses, along with other patient factors, to lead you to a diagnosis.

Consider the following scenarios:

Scenario 1:
Jennifer is a 2-year-old female who presents with her mother. Mom is concerned because Jennifer has been “running a temperature” for the last 3 days.  Mom says that Jennifer is usually healthy and has no significant medical history. She was in her usual state of good health until 3 days ago when she started to get fussy, would not eat her breakfast, and would not sit still for her favorite television cartoon. Since then she has had a fever off and on, anywhere between 101oF and today’s high of 103.2oF. Mom has been giving her ibuprofen, but when the fever went up to 103.2oF today, she felt that she should come in for evaluation. A physical examination reveals a height and weight appropriate 2-year-old female who appears acutely unwell.  Her skin is hot and dry. The tympanic membranes are slightly reddened on the periphery, but otherwise normal in appearance. The throat is erythematous with 4+ tonsils and diffuse exudates. Anterior cervical nodes are readily palpable and clearly tender to touch on the left side. The child indicates that her throat hurts “a lot” and it is painful to swallow. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 102.8oF, a pulse of 128 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 beats per minute.

Scenario 2:
Jack is a 27-year-old male who presents with redness and irritation of his hands. He reports that he has never had a problem like this before, but about 2 weeks ago he noticed that both his hands seemed to be really red and flaky. He denies any discomfort, stating that sometimes they feel “a little bit hot,” but otherwise they feel fine. He does not understand why they are so red. His wife told him that he might have an allergy and he should get some steroid cream. Jack has no known allergies and no significant medical history except for recurrent ear infections as a child. He denies any traumatic injury or known exposure to irritants. He is a maintenance engineer in a newspaper building and admits that he often works with abrasive solvents and chemicals. Normally he wears protective gloves, but lately they seem to be in short supply so sometimes he does not use them. He has exposed his hands to some of these cleaning fluids, but says that it never hurt and he always washed his hands when he was finished.

Scenario 3:
Martha is a 65-year-old woman who recently retired from her job as an administrative assistant at a local hospital. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, which has been controlled for years with hydrochlorothiazide. She reports that lately she is having a lot of trouble sleeping, she occasionally feels like she has a “racing heartbeat,” and she is losing her appetite. She emphasizes that she is not hungry like she used to be. The only significant change that has occurred lately in her life is that her 87-year-old mother moved into her home a few years ago. Mom had always been healthy, but she fell down a flight of stairs and broke her hip. Her recovery was a difficult one, as she has lost a lot of mobility and independence and needs to rely on her daughter for assistance with activities of daily living. Martha says it is not the retirement she dreamed about, but she is an only child and is happy to care for her mother. Mom wakes up early in the morning, likes to bathe every day, and has always eaten 5 small meals daily. Martha has to put a lot of time into caring for her mother, so it is almost a “blessing” that Martha is sleeping and eating less. She is worried about her own health though and wants to know why, at her age, she suddenly needs less sleep.

To prepare:

·        Review the three scenarios, as well as Chapter 6 in the Huether and McCance text.

·        Identify the pathophysiology of the disorders presented in the scenarios, including their associated alterations. Consider the adaptive responses to the alterations.

·        Review the “Mind Maps—Dementia, Endocarditis, and Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)” media in this week’s Learning Resources. Then select one of the disorders you identified from the scenarios. Use the examples in the media as a guide to construct a mind map for the disorder you selected. Consider the epidemiology, pathophysiology, risk factors, clinical presentation, and diagnosis of the disorder, as well as any adaptive responses to alterations.

To complete:

Write a 2- to 3-page paper that addresses the following:

·        Explain the pathophysiology of the disorders depicted in EACH the scenarios, including their associated alterations. Be sure to describe the patients’ adaptive responses to the alterations.

·        Construct a mind map of your selected disorder ( chose 1 from the scenarios). Include the epidemiology, pathophysiology, risk factors, clinical presentation, and diagnosis of the disorder, as well as any adaptive responses to alterations.

 Course Readings

·        Huether, S. E., & McCance, K. L. (2012). Understanding pathophysiology (Laureate custom ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby.

o   Chapter 5, “Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing”

This chapter examines how the body responds to injury and infection by exploring the first, second, and third lines of defense. It also covers wound healing and alterations of the wound healing process.

o   Chapter 6, “Adaptive Immunity”

This chapter examines the third line of defense, adaptive immunity. It also covers the roles of antigens and immunogens, the humoral immune response, cell-mediated immunity, and the production of B and T lymphocytes in the immune response.

o   Chapter 7, “Infection and Defects in Mechanism of Defense”

This chapter covers the epidemiology, clinical presentation, and treatment of disorders resulting from infection, deficiencies in immunity, and hypersensitivity. It also examines the pathophysiology of an important immune disorder—HIV/AIDS.

o   Chapter 8, “Stress and Disease”

This chapter evaluates the impact of stress on various body systems and the immune system. It also examines coping mechanisms and disorders related to stress.

o   Chapter 9, “Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer”

This chapter explores the developmental process of cancer and factors that impact the onset of cancer at the cellular level. It also describes various treatment options.

o   Chapter 10, “Cancer Epidemiology”

This chapter reviews genetic, environmental, behavioral, and diet-related risk factors for cancer. It also examines types of cancers that result from risk factors.

o   Chapter 11, “Cancer in Children”

This chapter focuses on the presentation and prognosis of childhood cancers. It examines the impact of genetic and environmental factors on these cancers.

o   Chapter 36, “Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System”

This chapter covers the structure and function of bones, joints, and skeletal muscle. It also explores effects of aging on the musculoskeletal system.

o   Chapter 37, “Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function”

This chapter examines the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, and evaluation and treatment of bone, joints, and skeletal muscle disorders. Additionally, it explores musculoskeletal tumors, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.

o   Chapter 38, “Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children”

This chapter includes musculoskeletal disorders that affect children, such as congenital defects, bone infection, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal tumors, and nonaccidental trauma.

o   Chapter 39, “Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument”

This chapter begins with an overview of the structure and function of skin. It then covers effects of aging on skin, as well as disorders of the skin, hair, and nails.

o   Chapter 40, “Alterations of Integument in Children”

This chapter covers alterations of the integument that affect children. These include acne vulgaris, dermatitis, infections of the skin, insect bites and parasites, vascular disorders, and other skin disorders.

·        McPhee, S. J., & Hammer, G. D. (2012). Pathophysiology of disease: An introduction to clinical medicine(Laureate Education, Inc., custom ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Medical.

o   Chapter 3, “Disorders of the Immune System”

This chapter explores the anatomy and physiology of the immune system. It also explores the pathophysiology of various immune disorders such as primary immunodeficiency diseases and AIDS.

o   Chapter 8, “Diseases of the Skin”

This chapter begins with an overview of the anatomy and physiology of skin. It also explores the pathophysiology of various types of skin lesions and inflammatory skin diseases.

o   Chapter 24, “Inflammatory Rheumatic Disease”

This chapter explores the pathogenesis of inflammation and its role in rheumatic diseases. It also examines the clinical presentation, etiology, pathophysiology, and clinical manifestations of rheumatic diseases such as gout and rheumatoid arthritis.


·        Zimbron, J.  (2008). Mind maps—Dementia, endocarditis, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD) [PDF]. Retrieved from
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. [Image]. Used with permission of MedMaps. 

This media provides examples of mind maps for dementia, endocarditis, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

Optional Resources

·        Arthritis Foundation. (2012). Retrieved from

·        Lupus Foundation of America. (2012). Retrieved from

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18 slide power point on windshield assessment Nursing related

Windshield Assessment PowerPoint

Prepare a PowerPoint presentation which performs a “Windshield Assessment” of a community in your area. Refer to Chapter 18: Community as Client: Assessment and Analysis, Table 18-5 on p. 420.

Be sure to include a title slide, an introductory slide, a reference slide, and a slide for  each  of the following assessment details:

· Boundaries,

· Housing and Zoning,

· Open Space,

· Commons,

· Transportation,

· Social Services Centers,

· Stores,

· Street People and Animals,

· Condition of the Area,

· Race and Ethnicity,

· Religion,

· Health Indicators,

· Politics,

· Media,

· Business and Industry (a minimum of 18 slides total).

The PowerPoint presentation should include photographs, illustrations, and bullet points. The speaker’s notes must accompany each slide and be at least 100 words in length. You must include three sources which are cited within the speaker’s notes and included on the reference slide.


Each community has its own characteristics. These characteristics along with demographic data provide valuable information in understanding the population that lives within the community and the health status, strengths/limitations, risks and vulnerabilities unique to the “population-of-interest”. Once you have defined a “community-of-interest” to assess, a  windshield survey  is the equivalent of a community head-to-toe assessment. The best way to conduct a windshield survey is to have a designated driver and at least one other passenger to scan the outline and take notes. Having one pair of eyes on the road, you can benefit from having several other individuals noticing the unique characteristics of the community…a shared experience provides additional insight. As you analyze your findings, it may be necessary to make a second tour to fill in any blanks. Many of us take these characteristics for granted, but they provide a rich context for understanding communities and populations and have significant impact on the health status of the community in general. You will report your findings in practicum conference and use relevant findings in your Community Problem Analysis (CPA) paper, so collect your findings and analysis in a useful format.

BoundariesWhat defines the boundary of? Roads, water, railroads? Does the area have a name? A nickname?
Housing and zoningWhat is the age of the houses? What kind of materials in the construction? Describe the housing including space between them, general appearance and condition, and presence of central heating, air conditioning, and modern plumbing.
Open spaceDescribe the amount, condition, use of open space? Is the space used? Safe? Attractive?
CommonsWhere do people in the neighborhood hang out? Who hangs out there and what hours during the day?
TransportationHow do people get from one place to another? Public transportation and if so, what kind and how effective; How timely? Personal autos? Bikes, etc?
Social service centersDo you see evidence of recreation centers, parks, social services, offices of doctors, dentists, pharmacies
StoresStreet people and animalsWhere do residents shop? How do they get to the shops? Do they have groceries or sources of fresh produce? Is this a “food desert”?Who do you see on the streets during the day? Besides the people, do you see animals? Are they loose or contained?
Condition of the areaIs the area well kept or is there evidence of trash, abandoned cars or houses? What kind of information is provided on the signs in the area?
Race and ethnicityWhat is the race of the people whom you see? What do you see about indices of ethnicity? Places of worship, food stores, restaurants? Are signs in English or other languages? (If the latter, which ones)?
ReligionWhat indications do you see about the types of religion residents practice?
Health indicatorsDo you see evidence of clinics, hospitals, mental illness, and/or substance abuse?
PoliticsWhat indicators do you see about politics? Posters, headquarters?
MediaDo you see indicators of what people read? If they watch television? Listen to the radio?
Business & industryWhat type of business climate exists? Manufacturers? Light or heavy industry? Large employers? Small business owners? Retail? Hospitality industry? Military installation? Do people have to seek employment elsewhere?
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Assignment 6.Please review the course web site for access dates: Click on the begin button to access the assignment and submit your answers. This covers Unit VI Earth’s Dynamic Atmosphere in the textbook (Chapters 11, 12, 13, and 14).

MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. (1 point each)

1) The annual temperature range at most latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere is much smaller than that in the Northern Hemisphere. The reason for this is that ________.

A) rainfall and cloudiness are greater in the Southern Hemisphere

B) Earth is closest to the Sun during the Southern Hemisphere summer

C) there is a greater percentage of water surface in the Southern Hemisphere

D) a greater proportion of the land surface is mountainous in the Southern Hemisphere

2) Imagine you are in a flying aircraft. You note the presence of clouds and storms at your same altitude. What layer of the atmosphere must the aircraft be traveling through?

A) stratosphere                        B) troposphere            C) mesosphere            D) ionosphere

3) Dust in the atmosphere is responsible for which of the following?

A) optical phenomena such as a red sky at sunset

B) reflection of solar energy

C) acting as a nucleus for condensation and cloud formation

D) Atmospheric dust does all of these.

4) Water vapor levels in Earth’s atmosphere ________.

A) range between 0% and 4%

B) vary from place to place and time to time

C) are a major mechanism of transport of latent heat

D) all of the above

5) Which of the following can influence temperature?

A) position on a landmass                   B) cloud cover

C) altitude                                            D) all of the above

6) Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?

A) nitrogen                  B) ozone          C) carbon dioxide        D) oxygen

7) The term ________ is used to describe the conversion of a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state.

A) sublimation            B) melting                    C) condensation                       D) evaporation

8) Rising air is ________ air.

A) stable                      B) cloudy                     C) warming                  D) unstable

9) Why are hygroscopic nuclei important?

A) They aid in evaporation, and therefore in cloud dissipation.

B) They encourage cooling of the atmosphere.

C) They facilitate warming of the atmosphere.

D) They aid in condensation, and therefore in cloud formation.

10) Clouds consist of ________.

A) water droplets         B) white-colored gases

C) ice particles            D) either water droplets or ice particles

11) When warm moist air moves over a cold surface, ________ fog may result.

A) upslope                   B) steam                      C) radiation                  D) advection

12) How can condensation be triggered to form clouds or fog?

A) Cool the air to its dew point.

B) Add sufficient water vapor to the air so that it reaches saturation.

C) Either of the above will work.

D) Neither of the above will work.

13) What two kinds of fog are the result of adding moisture to a layer of air?

A) radiation and upslope         B) advection and radiation

C) steam and frontal                D) upslope and steam

14) The Sahara and Australian deserts (among others) are associated with the ________.

A) anticyclone            B) subpolar low                       C) subtropical high      D) equatorial low

15) The zone of subsiding dry air which encircles the globe near 30° latitude, north and south, is known as the ________.

A) subtropical high      B) Hadley cell              C) polar front               D) trade winds

16) When the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force, high altitude ________ move parallel to isobars.

A) geostrophic winds   B) monsoons               C) valley breezes         D) chinooks

17) Which of these factors influence the magnitude of the Coriolis Effect (force)?

A) wind speed            B) wind direction

C) latitude                    D) both wind speed and latitude

Image shows United States, 48 contiguous states and portions of Canada and Mexico. Isobars show a circular pattern around letter A (Western Montana). Isobars are labeled 996, 1000 and 104 in three loose circles. Letter B is in the gulf coast region with one circular isobar of 1024 and then two not fully formed isobars of 1020 and 1026 spaced a good bit apart. Letter C is over the Philadelphia and tri-state area of PA, DE, and NJ. Letter C is between 1000 and 1004 where these bars are spread widely. Letter D is off coast of Canada above US New England states. Letter D is situated in circular isobars of 972, 976, 980, 984, 988, and 992 closely spaced.


Examine the map showing air pressure in millibars. Which of the four lettered locations deserves a wind hazard alert?

A) A                B) B                 C) C                 D) D

19) Because unequal heating of Earth’s surface generates these pressure differences, ________ is/are the ultimate energy source for most wind.

A) solar radiation                     B) hot springs

C) the greenhouse effect                      D) caves

Image shows arrow on left indictaion slowest at top to fastest at bottom. There are 4 columns labeled A, B, C, and D. Each column has 4 wind speed symbols. These are all wind speed symbols as shown in Smart Fugure 13.7 page 425 in textbook.    Top-most to bottom-most images are described.   A: four lines and one half line; one line and one half line; just a triangle, triangle with one line and one half line  B: One line and one half line; four lines and one half line; just a triangle; triangle with one line and one half line  C: One line and one half line; four lines and one half line; triangle with one line and one half line; just a triangle  D: Triangle with one line and one half line; just a triangle; four lines and a half line; one line and a half line


Examine the figure. Which of the four lettered columns shows the correct order of slowest wind symbols (top) to fastest wind symbols (bottom)?

A) A                B) B                 C) C                 D) D

21) A cyclone is ________.

A) another name for the low-pressure systems that take several days to travel across North America from west to east

B) the term for circulation around any low-pressure center, no matter how large or intense it is

C) another name for a tornado

D) another name for a hurricane

22) On a weather map, ________ are shown by a line with triangular points on one side.

A) dragon mouths        B) occluded fronts       C) warm fronts                        D) cold fronts

Image shows 4 patterns:  A: Red line with raised half circles  B: Blue line with raised triangles  C: line alternates red raised half circle and then blue triangle below line  D: Deeper blue line with raised triangle then half circle also raised.


Examine the figure. Which of the symbols shown is used to illustrate a stationary front?

A) A                B) B                 C) C                 D) D

24) An air mass originating in the Gulf of Mexico should be labeled ________.

A) mT              B) cP                C) cT               D) mP

25) Should people be more concerned about tornado warnings or tornado watches?

A) tornado watches                  B) tornado warnings               

C) both mean the same thing   D) neither are of concern

Fill in the blank. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. (1 point each)

26) Relative to lower temperatures, high temperatures require ________ (more / the same amount / less) moisture to fully saturate the air.

27) Mixing ratio, relative humidity, and dew-point temperature are all ways of measuring the amount of ________ in the air.

The image shows several bright colored hot air balloons ascending.


Examine the photo. These balloons are rising because the ________ air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding air.

29) ________ occurs when warm air is forced up and over a mass of cooler air.

30) ________ is a cloud with its base at or very near the ground.

31) Updrafts in cumulonimbus clouds may loft small particles of ice through the cloud, coating them and producing ________.

32) ________ is the result of horizontal differences in air pressure.

33) For a low-pressure center to be maintained or strengthened, the surface convergence must be balanced by ________ aloft.

34) In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis effect shifts objects to the ________ of their straight-line paths.

35) Chinook and Santa Ana winds are warm, dry winds created when air descends the leeward side of a mountain and ________ by compression.

36) Polar easterlies may dominate Alaska’s prevailing winds, and NE trade winds may dominate in Hawaii, but ________ dominate the prevailing winds of the “lower 48” (contiguous) United States.

37) ___________ is a situation where dense cold air actively advances into a region occupied by warmer air.

38) _________ is a situation where warmer air actively advances into a region occupied by dense cold air.

39) _________ is a scale for ranking how powerful a tornado is.

40) _________ is a scale for ranking how powerful a hurricane is.

#26-40 Vocabulary (extra words and/or phrases are included, not all will be used)

cold front

warm front

occluded front







Mohs Scale

enhanced Fujita intensity scale

Saffir-Simpson scale




water vapor

hot (warm)


freezing rain








frontal sparking

frontal wedging

reverse wedging

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Earth Science Lab #2

The Study of Minerals

*Use upload for pictures

1. Name the physical property (hardness, color, streak, etc.) described by each of the following statements.

DESCRIPTION:                                             PHYSICAL PROPERTY:

Breaks along smooth planes: ___________________________________

Scratches glass: _______________________________________

Shines like metal: __________________________________

Scratching produces a red powder: _____________________________

Looks like broken glass: ______________________________

2. What term is used to describe the shape of a mineral that has three directions of cleavage that intersect at 90-degree angels?   _______________________________

3. Describe the cleavage fo the minerals listed below. include the number of directions and degrees of cleavage angles (if appropriate).

MINERAL:                   CLEAVAGE:

Muscovite:   _____________________

Calcite: _______________________

Halite:  ______________________

Feldspar: _____________________

4. What physical feature most distinguishes biotite mica from muscovite mica? __________________________

5. Name a mineral that exhibits the physical properties listed below. (use the Photos in the upload, if needed)

PROPERTY:                           MINERAL:

One direction of cleavage: ________________________

Striations:    ________________________

Multiple Colors: __________________

Cubic cleavage: ______________________

Nonmetallic, vitreous luster: ______________________

Fracture: _____________________

Metallic luster: _____________________

6. Figure 1.32 illustrates the common crystal form of the mineral fluorite and the characteristic shape of a cleaved sample of fluorite. Identify each specimen (A or B) next to its appropriate description below. 

Cystal form of fluorite: ____________

Cleavage specimen of fluorite: ___________

7. Refer to the photo in Figure 1.33 to complete the following.

       a. Describe the crystal form (habit) of this specimen.


       b. What term is applied to the lines on this sample?


       c. Based on what you can determine from this photo, use the mineral identification key (see figure 1.24) to  

           identify this mineral. 


8. A photo of agate, a variety of quartz composed of microscopically small crystals, is provided in Figure 1.34. Based on this image, describe the habit of this sample.



9. If a mineral can be scratched by a penny but not by a fuman fingernail, what is its hardness on the Mohs scale?


10. What term is used to describe the tenacity of muscovite?


11. Use the mineral identification key (see Figure 1.24) to identify a mineral that is nonmetallic, dark colored, harder than glass, lacks cleavage, and is green in color.   _________________________________

12. For each mineral listed below, list at least one diagnostic property. 


Halite:     ______________________________________

Galena:   ______________________________________

Magnetite: _____________________________________

Muscovite: _____________________________________

Hematite: ______________________________________

Fluorite: _______________________________________

Talc:  _________________________________________

Graphite: ______________________________________

Calcite:  _______________________________________

13. List the two most common rock-forming mineral groups.



14. Providean economic use for each mineral listed below.

Galena: _______________________

Hematite: _____________________

Graphite: ______________________

Sphalerite: _____________________

Gypsum: ______________________

Calcite: _______________________

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Knowledge Check

3.3 Knowledge Check


Knowledge Check: Part A

The lasers are made from stacking light waves that add together into a larger wave in a process known as ______________.

3 Points

destructive interference

constructive interference

radio interference

gamma ray interference


The light waves have that particular interference from questions #1 because they are emitted __________.

3 Points

in phase

out of phase

in perpendicular directions

in thoughtless rage


The emission of the light waves in the lasers allows them to overlap properly to create larger waves, which means that _______________________ overlap. 

3 Points

the waves do not

the troughs of one wave and the crests of another

identical parts of the two waves

only fifty percent of one wave and another wave


The lasers are red, meaning that they are giving off light in the ____________ region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

3 Points

radio wave


visible light wave

ultraviolet wave


The weapon used by the Jawa surrounds R2-D2 with a strong electric field, which is created by a large imbalance of ____________.

3 Points


chemical bonds


the Force


The electric field induces the flow of electrons, known as __________________,

3 Points


electric current




The magnitude of the electric current is directly proportional to the _____________ of the electric field.

3 Points


electric current




The magnitude of the electric current is inversely proportional to the _______________ of the circuits in R2D2.

3 Points


electric current




The setting sun is actually visible after it has dropped below the horizon due to the bending of light waves entering the atmosphere at a non-perpendicular angle to the surface, a process known as _______________.

3 Points



constructive interference

destrustive interference


The Sun is going down, and most of the land is dark, still we can see silhouettes and outlines of objects because some light is still ____________ the atmosphere.

3 Points

absorbed in

reflected by

transmitted through

scattered by


Obi Wan uses his Jedi mind tricks to compel people to do his will. The words he uses begin in his vocal cords which _________ the air molecules in his throat.

3 Points






The words that began in his vocal chords are passed in _____________ through the gas medium to convince the troopers.

sound waves

radio waves


visible light waves


Han and Greedo fire their blasters at each other. The blasts are loud, and the intensity of the sound spreads through the cantina following the ______________.

3 Points

Conservation of Momentum

Inverse Square Law

Ohm’s Law

Newton’s Third Law of Momentum


The sound strikes the cantina walls and bounces off at the same angle as it struck in a process known as ______________.

3 Points



constructive interference

destructive interference


Obi Wan hears the destruction of a planet and all of its people through ‘the force’. These sounds are only in his head and are not carried through space, since space has no ______________ through which sound could transmit.

3 Points

electromagnetic wave


magnetic field



However, had it been a real sound, the sound’s pitch would have been increased by the Doppler Effect, since the Falcon was moving ______________ the source of the sound.

3 Points

perpendicular to

away from


at the same speed as


The communications of the ship were made inoperable by electromagnetic waves sent by the Death Star that were completely out of phase with attempted communications causing ______________.

3 Points



constructive interference

destructive interference


These generators utilize a changing magnetic field through coils of wire to produce ______________ that supplies the tractor beam with electricity.

3 Points

an electric field

a Doppler effect

constructive interference

destructive interference


Vader’s light saber is red, while Obi-Wan’s light saber is blue, meaning that Obi-Wan’s light saber is emitting ______________ compared to Vader’s light saber.

3 Points

lower energy light waves

higher energy light waves

the same energy light waves

more sound waves


Both red and blue light are in the visible light region of ______________.

3 Points

Ohm’s Law

the Inverse Square Law

the electromagnetic spectrum

Newton’s Third Law of Motion


Knowledge Check: Part B

Find a picture from a media source (movies, TV, comics, video games, etc.) that contains a device generating electricity connected to a device that is using electrical energy.  Place the picture in the following diagram template and cite the image using APA format:

Keynote: Week3DiagramTemplate.key

PowerPoint: Week3DiagramTemplate.pptx

If you need help learning how to manipulate the template in Keynote checkout this video series . For a different version of Keynote, power point or other software, just search in for other great courses.

If you are unable to open either of the diagram templates for any reason, please use the image below as a guideline in creating your own diagram in another presentation-based software program.

Answer the following questions based on the picture chosen and what you have learned this week.

Open your diagram template and do the following:

1. Move and resize the red circle so that it is around an object in your diagram that is producing electricity (electrical energy) and label it in the key.

2. Move and resize the green circle so that it is around the device that is using electrical energy and label it in the key.

0 Points


Do not choose this option.


Current is most closely defined as:

3 Points

The amount of electrical potential energy between two charged points per unit of charge.

A quantity that measures the amount of opposition to electron flow in a circuit.

The rate at which electric charge is flowing through a conductor.

Both A and C.

None of the above.


Voltage is most closely defined as:

3 Points

The amount of electrical potential energy between two charged points per unit of charge.

A quantity that measures the amount of opposition to electron flow in a circuit.

The rate at which electrons are flowing around a closed circuit per unit of time.

Both A and C.

None of the above.


Resistance is most closely defined as:

3 Points

The amount of electrical potential energy between two charged points per unit of charge.

A quantity that measures the amount of opposition to electron flow in a circuit.

The rate at which electrons are flowing around a closed circuit per unit of time.

Both A and C.

None of the above.


The electrical energy from the electric generator is being sent to the device that uses that electrical energy. Does this energy vanish? If not, what happens to this energy after it makes it to the device? (Don’t forget about the Conservation of Energy!)

5 Points


If the cable from the electrical generator was looped on the floor producing a coil and turned on what would happen?

3 Points

An electric field would be produced in the center of the coil.

A magnetic field would be produced in the center of the coil.

Light would be produced in the center of the coil.

Nothing would happen.


 Suppose another device was wired into the circuit next to your current device using electrical energy that you circled in green before.  Assuming this second device was wired in series, what would happen to the total current?

3 Points

The current would go up.

The current would go down.

The current stays the same.


Open your diagram template and do the following:

1. In order for current to flow, there must be a complete circuit (loop) for the current to flow through. Move, resize, and rotate the yellow arrows to show the full circuit between the generator and the electrical using device that the current is using. You can also copy and paste to make more arrows if needed. (Make your best guess if you are not able to see all the wires.)

2. You will be marking the voltage at two points on your circuit that you have marked with yellow arrows. A orange dot will mark a point with the higher voltage, and a purple dot will mark a point with lower voltage. Place one of the two dots either right before or right after the power generator in your circuit. Place the other dot on your circuit near the device using electric power.

Save your diagram as a PDF and upload the completed file below.

20 Points

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