1. What is biodiversity?

A. The variety of genes within a species

B. The variety of species within an ecosystem

C. The variety of ecosystems on the planet

D. All of the above

2. Which of the following best describes genetic diversity?

A. Variety of genes within an individual

B. Variety of genes within a population of a species

C. Variety of species within an ecosystem

D. All of the above

3. Which of the following best describes ecosystem diversity?

A. Variety within an ecosystem

B. Variety of ecosystems

C. Variety of species

D. All of the above

4. What leads to genetic diversity?

A. Natural selection

B. Reproduction

C. Genetic mutation

D. All of the above

5. Biodiversity varies depending on location. Which of the following places has the greatest biodiversity?

A. The Sahara Desert

B. The Nile River Delta

C. Mount Everest

D. The Amazon Rainforest

6. Approximately how many unique species have been named and categorized?

A. 500,000

B. 1.5 million

C. 15 million

D. 50 million

7. The extinction rate of species from non-human related causes is about one species per 100 years. What is the approximate current rate of extinction, including human related causes?

A. One per 100 years

B. One per 50 years

C. One per 10 years

D. One per year

8. What is the overall greatest threat to biodiversity?

A. Invasive species

B. Habitat loss

C. Use of pesticides

D. Over hunting and over harvesting

9. At what time scale is life able to adapt to environmental change?

A. Months to years

B. Decades to centuries

C. Centuries to millennia

D. All of the above

10. Biodiversity is important for natural ecosystems, but how much impact does declining biodiversity really have on human life?

A. Declining biodiversity minimally affects humans.

B. The only impact to humans is a decrease in the health of natural areas and less wildlife for us to enjoy.

C. The only major impact is that as species go extinct, we will lose opportunities for discovering new, lifesaving drugs.

D. Human life depends on biodiversity.

11. Ecosystem services are an integral part of biodiversity. What is an ecosystem service?

A. A government program to help preserve biodiversity

B. A process within an ecosystem that provides a benefit to humans or the environment

C. A system for assessing the level of biodiversity of a given region

D. The repair and rehabilitation of an ecosystem

12. The following is an example of an ecosystem service:

A. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

B. The cooling effect greenways have on an urban environment

C. Geographic information systems (GIS) and remote sensing

D. The process of clean up after an oil spill

13. What actions can an individual take to help preserve biodiversity?

A. Buy local produce

B. Drive and fly less

C. Use eco-friendly products

D. All of the above

14. What is a keystone species?

A. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem

B. A species that is key to our understanding of biodiversity

C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance

D. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are

15. What is an indicator species?

A. A species on the endangered species list

B. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are

C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance

D. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem

16. With respect to the scientific method , in the conclusion of an experiment, can you leave out experimental results that do no support your hypothesis?

A. No B. Yes

17. With respect to the scientific method , how many controls can you have in an experiment?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. As many as you would like

18. With respect to the scientific method ,how many independent variables can you have during an experiment?

A. 1 B. 2 C. As many as you would like D. The same amount as the number of controlled variables

19. With respect to the scientific method ,which of the following is not a requirements when creating a hypothesis for an experiment?

A. A hypothesis is based on knowledge and research.

B. A hypothesis is an idea about the solution to a problem.

C. A hypothesis is created after an experiment is completed.

D. A hypothesis should make a claim about how two factors are related.

20. What are the five steps of the scientific method in order from first to last?

A. Research, problem, hypothesis, project experimentation, conclusion

B. Research, problem, project experimentation, conclusion, hypothesis

C. Research, problem, project experimentation, hypothesis, conclusion

21. The scientific method is a process for experimentation that is used to explore observations and answer questions. What is the first step in completing the scientific method?

A. Project experimentation B. Hypothesis C. Problem D. Research

22. The second step to the scientific method is to state the “problem”, the scientific question to be solved. What is one requirement that needs to be fulfilled in order for the “problem” to be valid?

A. It needs to be a problem that has a number answer. B. It needs to be a problem that can be solved experimentally.

C. It needs to be a problem that has a yes or no answer.

23 A pattern or relationship that has been established based on a large amount of experimental data is A.

A. Theory

B. Hypothesis

C. Law

24. If the results of an experiment turn out differently from what you expected, then:

A. The experiment was a failure.

B. You should explore the possible reasons for this in the ‘conclusions’ section of your experimental write-up.

C. You need to redo your experiment until you get the expected result.

D. You didn’t follow the scientific method.

25. Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

A. Diffusion

B. Osmosis

C. Endocytosis

D. Facilitated diffusion

26. Chamber A contains 40% helium and Chamber B contains 20% helium. Chambers are connected by a tube the molecules are free to cross. Which of the following will occur?

A. Some helium will move from chamber A to chamber B

B. Some helium will move from chamber B to chamber A

C. Helium will remain concentrated in chamber A

D. All of the helium will move into chamber B

27. What will happen to an animal cell placed in a salt water solution?

A. The cell will shrink

B. The cell will expand

C. The cell will burst

D. The cell will shrink and then expand and then shrink again

28. An animal cell placed in a hypotonic solution will:

A. Die

B. Take on water

C. Lose water

D. Divide

29. Which of the following is a type of active transport?

A. Sodium potassium pump

B. Endocytosis

C. Exocytosis

D. All of these

30. Active transport requires:

A. A concentration gradient

B. Osmosis

C. Energy

D. A hypertonic solution

31. The scientific discipline that investigates the body’s structure and shape is calleD.

A. Anatomy.

B. Embryology.

C. Endocrinology.

D. Histology.

E. Physiology.

32. Select the correct statement concerning the tissue level.

A. Tissues consist of groups of similar cells that have a common function.

B. The four basic tissue types (epithelial, connective, muscular, and neural) play a definite but different role in the body.

C. Two or more tissue types that performs a specific function for the body constitutes an organ

D. All of the above

33. The sum of all chemical reactions in the body is termed.

A. Homeostasis

B. Physiology

C. Dynamic feedback

D. Metabolism

34. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed.

A. Organ

B. Serous membrane

C. Complex tissue

D. Organ system

35. The “basic unit of life” is:

A. The atom

B. Water

C. The cell

D. The chemical level of organization

36 . A group of cells of the same type form a(n):

A. Organ.

B. Organism.

C. Atom.

D. Tissue.

E. Organ system.

37. Which of the following best illustrates the increasing levels of complexity?

(1) Cells; (2) Organs; (3) Organelles; (4) Organism; (5) Tissues; (6) Organ systems

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1, 6.

C. 4, 3, 5, 6, 1, 2.

D. 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4.

E. 1, 5, 3, 2, 6, 4.

38. Which of the statements below is untrue with respect to organ systems?

A. They can share organs with other systems.

B. They function together to ensure wellness of the organism.

C. They act independently of each other.

D. They are groups of organs with a common function.

39. Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function?

A. Maintaining boundaries.

B. Movement.

C. Thinking.

D. Responsiveness.

E. Reproduction.

40. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used

A. To produce large numbers of identical DNA segments called gene probes.

B. Increase the amount of DNA to be searched in DNA sequencing procedures

C In water-quality tests

D. In HIV and HPV detection

E. To identify even poorly growing bacterial cultures

F. In all of the above

41 Which of the statements below are false with respect to gene probe technology?

A. Since first introduced in the 1970s, gene probe tests have been met only with periods of unbridled enthusiasm.

B.The ViraPap test is a commercially available gene probe test for detecting human papilloma virus (HPV), the virus that causes genital warts.

C. A similar technique can be used to conduct water-quality tests based on the detection of coliform bacteria such as E. coli

D. gene probes and PCR have been useful is in the detection of human immunodeficiency virus (H1V).

E. None of the above

42. When gene probe analysis becomes more widely accepted it will allow the identification of

A. Salmonella,

B. Shigella

C. Vibrio .

D. All of the above

43. Gene probe technology

A Is described as “exquisitely accurate”

B. Have a high degree of discrimination and reliability as strong as older identification methods.

C Allows one to get a result in a few short hours instead of many days

D. Is extremely sensitive

E. All of the above

44. Gene probe assays are widely available in kit forms for a variety of bacterial species except

A. Staphylococci

B. Haemophilus

C. Listeria

D Mycobacterium, and Neisseria

E Fungi (such as Blastomyces, Coccidioides, and Histoplasma).

45. The future value of gene probes will depend in part on

A. The development of ways to minimize false-positive reactions due to contamination

B. Methods of increasing the sensitivity of tests

C. On mechanisms for enhancing the signals from probes bound to their target molecules.

D. All of the above

E A & C only

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46. With respect to interpreting BLAST search results, when you do a BLAST search BLAST will come back with a result, that includes

A. The reference of the search program

B. The number of letters in your sequence C. The number of letters in the database D. A graphic representation of the sequence matches E. A list of matches sorted with the best matching sequences shown first F. All of the above

G. A, C & E only

47. In interpreting BLAST results select the answer below that is false.

A. If BLAST returns an E-value that is very small or close to zero, then you probably have a meaningful match that is not due to random chance. B. Since each match therefore contains 2 bits of information (and only 1 is correct out of 4 possibles), then the higher the score, the better is the match.

C. To interpret the matches, you therefore need to pay attention to whether the E-value is reasonably small

D. Two or more sequences may match extremely well but appear to belong to completely different species. E. None of the above

48. The process by which energy is obtained directly from sunlight and stored in organic compounds is called…

A. Transpiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Accessory pigmentation

D. Respiration

E. Crassulacean acid metabolism

49. Organisms that manufacture their own food from inorganic substances and energy (photosynthesize and/or chemosythesize) are called…

A. Heterotrophs

B. Protists

C. Tertiary consumers

D. Autotrophs

E. Fungi

50 All living things *indirectly* get their food from…

A. Photosynthesis

B. Particle spin

C. Only chemosynthesis

D. Pigments

E. Water

51. What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?

A. Animals only

B. Plants only

C. All of them

D. Crustaceans only

52. The initial reactions in photosynthesis are known collectively as…

A. Thylakenisis

B. The light reactions

C. The Muller-Cooper reactions

D. The dark reactions

E. The Calvin pathway

53. The (blanks) of photosynthesis are the (blanks) of cellular respiration.

A. Pigments, products

B. Electrons, protons

C. Nucleotides, nitrogen bases

D. Products, reactants

E. Reactants, products

53. An orange carrot…

A. Refracts yellow light

B. Reflects all wavelengths of light except orange

C. Transmits blue and green light

D. Absorbs all wavelengths of light except orange

E. Absorbs violet light, but reflects red and green light

54. Photophosphorylation involves ATP

A. Production during the light reaction of photosynthesis

B. Breakdown during the light reaction of photosynthesis

C. Formation during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

D. Breakdown during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

55. The net equation for photosynthesis produces

A. Water and carbon dioxide

B. Water and oxygen

C. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide

D. Carbohydrate and oxygen

56. As far as the light reaction of photosynthesis is concerned, what is the role of oxygen?

A. It is a necessary reactant.

B. It is a waste product.

C. It is a product that is then utilized in the dark reaction.

D. It is not involved as a product or a reactant.

57. The essential initial role of light in initiating the light reaction of photosynthesis is to produce

A. Free neutrons

B. Free electrons

C. Free oxygen

D. ATP

58. True or False question

 The proper way to focus a microscope is to start with the highest power objective (100X) first.

A. True

B. False

59. Resolving power is the ability to discern two objects as being distinct objects.

A. True

B. False

60. Which of the Statements below is false? A. Resolving power is also influenced by the NA of the objective. B. The air space between the slide and lens can be replaced by a drop of immersion oil which has a different refractive index than air. C. The use of oil immersion is an absolute necessity when using the 40X objective. D. When using the 40X and 100X objectives, only use the fine focus.

61. During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments? A. Metaphase  B. Early Prophase C. Anaphase  D. Late Prophase 62. Equatorial plate of the mitotic spindle is formed during the _______. A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase C. Late prophase  D. Early prophase

63. Mitotic cell division is initiated in the _______. A. Centromere  B. Centriole C. Mucleus  D. Mitotic spindle  64. During which stage of mitosis do nucleoli reappear? A. Anaphase  B. Early Prophase  C. Telophase D. Late Prophase  65. The number of chromosomes in a human cell is _______. A. 2  B. 4  C. 23  D. 4666. The resting stage of the cell is known as the _______. A. Interphase B. Telophase  C. Anaphase  D. Prophase  67. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate to form two sets of daughter chromosomes? A. Anaphase B. Telophase  C. Prophase  D. Interphase  68. Genetic information is transferred from parent to daughter cells through the _______. A. Mitochondria  B. Endoplasmic reticulum  C. Centrioles  D. Nucleus 69. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?   A. Metaphase  B. Telophase  C. Anaphase D. Prophase  70. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?   A. Metaphase  B. Anaphase  C. Telophase D. Prophase

71. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?   A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Telophase  72. Which of the following is the longest stage of mitosis? A. Telophase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Anaphase  73. During which stage of mitosis does longitudinal splitting of the chromosomes occur? A. Prophase  B. Anaphase C. Telophase  D. Metaphase

74. The interphase and mitosis together constitute the cell cycle. A. True B. False  75. The nuclear membrane is formed around the newly-formed sets of daughter chromosomes during the telophase. A. True B. False  76. During mitosis, loosely arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened and distinct during the metaphase. A. True  B. False

77. Mendel’s second principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic will not affect the inheritance of another characteristic. What is the principle called?

A. Mutation

B. Fertilization

C. Crossing over

D. Independent assortment

78. Which statement describes how two organisms may show the same trait, yet have different genotypes for that phenotype?

A. One is homozygous dominant and the other is heterozygous.

B. One is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive.

C. Both are heterozygous for the dominant trait

D. Both are homozygous for the dominant trait.

79. Sexual reproduction contributes to

A. Less genetic variation within a population.

B. More identical genotypes within a population.

C. Greater genetic variation within a population.

D. Greater mutation rate within a population.

80. Which of the following genotypes has the potential for the greatest genetic variation in the offspring?

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive.

Heterozygous crossed with homozygous recessive.

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous dominant.

Heterozygous crossed with another heterozygous individual.

81. In pea plants, yellow pea pods are dominant to green pea pods and round-shaped pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. How do the offspring of two plants that are heterozygous for yellow, round pods result in four different phenotypes? Is it the result of

A. Random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.

B. Random fertilization during sexual reproduction.

C. Crossing over between chromosomes during meiosis.

D. Mutation in the DNA of the gametes.

82. In pea plants, yellow is a dominant trait and green is a recessive trait. In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the pea color trait, what percent of the offspring should have yellow peas?

A. 100%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

83. Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel’s experiments included all listed below except

A. True-breeding varieties were scarce.

B. He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.

C. They have relatively short generation time.

D. Sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.

84. Pea plants can

A. Self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible

B. Self-fertilize

C. Only cross-fertilize

D. Reproduce without pollination

85. When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant to recessive ratio in the F1generation was

A. 3:1

B. 4:0

C. 4:1

D. 4:0

E. 9:3:3:1

86. On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?

A. 13

B. 18

C. Y

D.15

E. X

87. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is

A. YO

B. XXY

C. XYY

D. XO

88. In Mendel’s F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because

A. The trait is sex-linked

B. Both parents were heterozygous purple

C. One parent was homozygous recessive

D. Both parents were heterozygous white

89. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was

A. 1:3:1

B. 3:1

C. 1:1

D. 9:7

E. 9:3:3:1

90. The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the

A. Genotype

B. Phenotype

C. Phototype

E. Stereotype

91. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be

A. Homozygous

B. Heteromologous

C. Homologous

D. Heterozygous

E. Diplozygous

92. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?

A. WWSs

B. WwSS

C. WwSs

D. WWss

E. wwSs

93.Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed

A. sS

B. ss

C. SS

D. Ss

E. tall

94. The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is the most common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?

A. RR

B. rr

C. WW

D. ww

E. red

95. In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?

A. 3/4

B. 2/3

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

E. 1/4

96. The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.

A. True

B. False

97. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected individuals having at least one affected parent.

A) True

B) False

98 One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.

A. True

B. False

99. Down syndrome results from:

A. The absence of one chromosome in position 21

B. The presence of an extra chromosome in position 21

C. The absence of both chromosomes in position 21

D. Crossing over on the chromosomes in position 21

E. None of the above

100. Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?

A. Down syndrome

B. Barr body

C. Turner syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

Associate Degree Nursing (ADN) vs Baccalaureate Degree Nursing (BSN) on patient Care Outcomes

Current statistics show that at present, there are 1,048 Associate Degree Nursing (ADN) colleges and 696 Baccalaureate Degree Nursing (BSN) institutions in the United States (Cherry & Jacob, 2017). Recent studies show that a correlation exists between patient safety outcomes and whether a nurse has an ADN or BSN. Linda Aiken, PhD, RN, who is associated with the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation (RWFJ), believes that hospitals who employ more BSN-prepared nurses have better patient outcomes and lower mortality rates (RWJF, 2014).
In 2003, Aikens reported on studies done in Pennsylvania hospitals showing a 5% decrease in patient deaths at hospitals that staffed a 10% increase in BSN-prepared nurses (RWJF, 2014). Challengers of Aikens note that these studies raise further questions (Sentinel Watch, 2014). For example, what were the actual causes of death of these patients, and were they related to the action of an ADN nurse? Could there be other factors or causal relationships that affected patient care in these circumstances?
In defense of Aikens, the Sentinel (2014) states that no one is calling ADN nurses “bad nurses”. In fact, errors, infections, and adverse events are often due to process and system problems. Aikens maintains that by promoting evidence-based practice and leadership, the BSN curriculum will better prepare nurses to correct problems and implement solutions.
I agree that it is advantageous for nurses to expand their knowledge by obtaining a BSN degree, but I do not feel that deaths and adverse outcomes are the result if ADNs care, or lack of. Many other factors need to be considered. For example, poor staffing, long shifts, poor communication, fatigue, documentation errors, etc. affect everyone no matter what type of degree they hold. I have been at the hospital where I am currently employed for almost 20 years and have seen no evidence that the care given by ADNs is substandard to the care given by BSN-prepared nurses.
References
Cherry, B. & Jacob, S. (2017).Contemporary nursing, issues, trends, & management. St. Louis: Elsevier
Robert Wood Johnson Foundation. (2014).  Building the case for more highly
educated nurses. Retrieved from http://www.rwjf.org/en/library/articles
The Sentinel Watch. (2014). How does your nursing degree affect patient
mortality rates? Retrieved from http://www.american sentinel.edu

Treatment versus Punishment:
That is the Question!When looking at the relationship between social justice and juvenile justice, there are two overarching concepts when addressing juvenile delinquency – treatment and punishment. These two concepts have driven a cycle of changes in the juvenile justice system over the years. Your task is to support your premise that your state or city should either implement a philosophy of treatment or punishment for juvenile offenders for a specific crime or criminal justice issue identified in your paper.

Explain the differences between the treatment and punishment concepts. Build the case for which one you believe has the stronger position based on your research and the crime or criminal justice issue you selected to study.

Review the juvenile crime statistics between three cities or states in three different parts of the country (e.g., Boston, Chicago, and Seattle) for a crime or criminal justice issue. Incorporate a graphic display to present your findings. Be sure to include at least three demographic items, such as gender, ethnicity, race, education, or socio-economic status, in your analysis. Ensure you standardize your data (i.e., 1:1000; 1:10,000; or 1: 100,000) and incorporate the scale in a key for each chart.

Identify the prevailing thought in the city or state: Is it treatment or punishment? Analyze the differences in the recidivism rates between the cities or states you have selected? Is recidivism the best indicator of success or failure or should we use a different indicator?

In Chapters 2 and 3 of the text, our author addresses biological, psychological and sociological theories to help explain juvenile delinquency. Evaluate which of these theories would best support your thesis.

Support which juvenile justice intervention strategy would be effective to counter the crime or criminal justice issue based on your research?

Conclude with a summary of which concept (treatment or punishment) best supports the over arching concept of social justice?

The paper must be ten to twelve pages in length and formatted according to APA style. You must use at least six scholarly resources (at least four of which must be found in the Ashford Online Library) other than the textbook to support your claims. Cite your sources within the text of your paper and on the reference page. For information regarding APA, including samples and tutorials, visit the Ashford Writing Center, located within the Learning Resources tab on the left navigation toolbar.

Writing the Final Paper

The Final Paper:

Must be ten to twelve double-spaced pages in length, and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Must include a title page with the following:

Title of paper

Student’s name

Course name and number

Instructor’s name

Date submitted

Must begin with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement.

Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought.

Must end with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis.

Must use at least six scholarly resources, including a minimum of four from the Ashford University Library.

Must document all sources in APA style, as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Must include a separate reference page, formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

Waypoint Assignment Submission

The assignments in this course will be submitted to Waypoint.  Please refer to the instructions below to submit your assignment.

Click on the Assignment Submission button below. The Waypoint “Student Dashboard” will open in a new browser window.

Browse for your assignment.

Click Upload.

Confirm that your assignment was successfully submitted by viewing the appropriate week’s assignment tab in Waypoint.

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