Question 1

2 / 2 pts

After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

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24 to 36

6 to 14

18 to 20

1 to 2

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?





Question 3

2 / 2 pts

Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

bone marrow

the lungs

the thymus gland

the central nervous system

HIV may persist in regions where the antiviral drugs are not as effective, such as the


Question 4

2 / 2 pts

What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Cardiovascular disease


Traumatic injury

Infectious disease

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

Which statement about vaccines is true?

Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.

Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection.

Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections.

Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Which statement is true about fungal infections?

They are prevented by vaccines.

They result in release of endotoxins.

They occur only on skin, hair, and nails.

They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.

Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.

Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.




A and B

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

Pernicious anemia

Myasthenia gravis

Hemolytic anemia

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

DiGeorge syndrome

Bruton disease

Reticular dysgenesis

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens.

altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease.

undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens.

immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is





Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?





Question 14

2 / 2 pts

What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

Enhancement of B cells and T cells

Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells

Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells

Depression of B cells and T cells

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

Stress-age syndrome results in decreased




immune system.

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

IL-1 and IL-6

TNF-ß and IL-4

IL-2 and TNF-?

IFN and IL-12

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by





Question 18

2 / 2 pts

Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of





Question 19

2 / 2 pts

What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-?) in cell metastasis?

To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells

To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells

To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis

To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Liposarcoma, lipoma

Adipoma, adisarcoma

Adisarcoma, adipoma

Lipoma, liposarcoma

Question 22

0 / 2 pts

In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

Chromosome fusion

Chromosome translocation

Gene amplification

Point mutation

Question 23

0 / 2 pts

Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Growth-promoting genes


Tumor-suppressor genes


Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except






Question 25

2 / 2 pts

What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?





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