recognize and explain how the scientific method is used to solve problems

This assignment addresses course outcomes 1-4:

  • recognize and explain how the scientific method is used to solve problems
  • make observations and discriminate between scientific and pseudoscientific explanations
  • weigh evidence and make decisions based on strengths and limitations of scientific knowledge and the scientific method
  • use knowledge of biological principles, the scientific method, and appropriate technologies to ask relevant questions, develop hypotheses, design and conduct experiments, interpret results, and draw conclusions

1. Select one of the topics listed below (a-e).
2. Find at least three reliable information sources related to your chosen topic. You are encouraged to use the UMUC library in your search: http://libguides.umuc.edu/science.
3. Write a paper with title page, introduction, several paragraphs addressing the questions, conclusion and references. You must write in your own words and paraphrase information from the selected information sources, addressing each of the questions for your chosen topic. Your paper should consist of less than 10% direct quotes. Your paper should be 750-1500 words, excluding references and title page. Use APA style for references
*** Stem cells. Your friend has suffered a spinal cord injury after a bad car accident. The medical team has decided that he is a good candidate for a clinical trial using stem cell therapy. Your friend has not had a biology course since high school, so you decide to write him a letter sharing your knowledge of stem cells. Include in your letter a description of the biology of stem cells and how these cells are unique from other cells. Contrast the different types of stem cells, including pros and cons for each type. Explain how stems cells can be used to treat diseases and injury, with special focus on spinal cord injuries. Include information from at least one research study or clinical trial. Conclude with your own opinion.

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Discuss the direct influence the IOM report has on nursing education and nursing leadership. Describe the benefits and opportunities for BSN-prepared nurses.

Review the Institute of Medicine’s 2010 report “The Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.” Write a 750-1,000 word paper discussing the influence of the IOM report on nursing practice. Include the following:

  1. Summarize the four messages outlined in the IOM report and explain why these are significant to nursing practice.
  2. Discuss the direct influence the IOM report has on nursing education and nursing leadership. Describe the benefits and opportunities for BSN-prepared nurses.
  3. Explain why it is important that a nurse’s role and education evolve to meet the needs of an aging and increasingly diverse population.
  4. Discuss the significance of professional development, or lifelong learning, and its relevance in caring for diverse populations across the life span and within the health-illness continuum.
  5. Discuss how nurses can assist in effectively managing patient care within an evolving health care system.
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Discuss two different types of comfort interventions that can be utilized by the advanced practice nurse in the clinical setting as per Katharine Kolcaba's Theory of Comfort.

QUESTION

discussion nursing

WEEK 10

Discuss two different types of comfort interventions that can be utilized by the advanced practice nurse in the clinical setting as per Katharine Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort. Identify one MSN Essential that most relates to application of this theory in practice and explain your choice.

**As a reminder, all questions must be answered to receive full credit for this discussion. please include your name in the title bar of the discussion. Discussion posts must be minimum of 250 words and reply posts minimum 100 words. Also, make sure to use scholarly sources to support your discussion.**

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Socw 6301 Wk9 Dis-2 Discussion 2: Statistical Significance And Variables

 Psychology homework help
Socw 6301 Wk9 Dis-2 Discussion 2: Statistical Significance And Variables
Research studies often compare variables, conditions, times, and/or groups of participants to evaluate relationships between variables or differences between groups or times. For example, if researchers are interested in knowing whether an intervention produces change in the desired direction, they will want to know whether the change is due to chance (statistical significance) or possibly due to the intervention. In this case, researchers could use a pre and post measurement of the same participants on the condition being treated, or they could compare a group of individuals who receive the intervention to a group that does not receive the intervention. Researchers could also compare two groups of individuals who receive different interventions. The rigor of the research design helps control for other factors that might account for the changes (e.g., time, conditions, group differences in other factors, etc.). To prepare for this Discussion, consider the concept of statistical significance.
Post your explanation of how the difference between statistical significance and the true importance (clinical significance) of the relationship between variables or the degree of difference between groups affect your practice decision making. Be sure to include an explanation of what statistical significance means. Include an example from a quantitative study that found statistically significant differences. Discuss whether the results of the study would—or should—influence your practice as a social worker. Please use the resources to support your answer.
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The Impact of Intrinsic Motivation

Assignment: The Impact of Intrinsic Motivation

Reflect for a moment on your nursing career. About what are you most passionate? When do you feel you are at your best? What brings you the greatest satisfaction in your work? Positive feelings in the workplace are usually fueled by intrinsic motivators: healthy relationships, meaningful purpose, competence, choice, and progress. As a nurse manager, it is helpful to recognize what motivates you to perform well in your own job. You should also take time to understand the motivations of employees. By speaking to staff about their interests and professional goals, nurse managers can build relationships and thus provide appropriate motivators.

For this Assignment, you examine your personal work experiences to determine which of the five intrinsic motivators are more influential in shaping your positive feelings about the workplace.

To prepare

Reflect on your work history, from your first job to your current employment.

Select one time period or situation in which you felt professionally happy, motivated, and fulfilled in your job. What do you remember most about this time period? What are, or were, the various personal and professional factors that helped to shape these feelings?

Select one time period or situation in which you felt professionally unhappy, disengaged, and unfulfilled in your job. What do you remember most about this time period? What are, or were, the various personal and professional factors that caused these feelings?

Review the selected pages from Chapter 7, “Coaching and Developing Others” in the course text, From Management to Leadership: Strategies for Transforming Health Care. Consider the potential influence of the five intrinsic motivators during your chosen time period or situation.

Which intrinsic motivators seem to resonate more with your own perceptions of job fulfillment?

Which motivators do you believe have greater influence on your professional well-being?

Review the media, “Fostering a Positive Workplace.” How can nurse leaders use their awareness of the five motivators to engage and retain nursing staff?

To complete

Submit a 3- to 5-page paper in which you do the following:

Appraise a time when you have felt professionally fulfilled. Describe the setting, your job title, and the roles and responsibilities in which you were engaged. Identify your own key intrinsic motivators and explain how these were evident in this situation. Cite specific examples.

Appraise a time when you have felt professionally unfulfilled. Describe the setting, your job title, and the roles and responsibilities in which you were engaged. Explain the motivator(s) that were absent and how this impacted your professional performance. Cite specific examples.

Discuss how you, as a nurse manager, might implement organization- or department-wide changes that would create an environment that engages staff through one or more intrinsic motivators.

Reminder: The School of Nursing requires that all papers submitted include a title page, introduction, summary, and references. The Sample Paper provided at the Walden Writing Center provides an example of those required elements (available at http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/57.htm). All papers submitted must use this formatting.

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>Psychology homework help

Overview: This journal activity is private between you and the instructor.
This week, you learned about active reading and analysis by looking more closely at a selected reading. In doing so, you uncovered ideas in the “Turning Off, Dining In” article that may have been difficult to identify during your literal reading of the text.
To prepare for this assignment, please re-read your selected article and your notes from Module 1. Then, using a Word Document, answer the following questions:

  • Discuss the context of your selected article, the author’s purpose, and the style and tone. What have you learned from this early analysis?
  • How will a closer analysis of the author’s claim and the structure of the writing help you to learn more about your selected reading?
  • Now that you have discussed the author’s purpose for writing the selected reading, do you think the author’s writing is effective in achieving their purpose? What led you to this conclusion?

In total, the reflection should be three fully developed paragraphs (5-8 sentences each) in length (consider one paragraph per question). As you work on the journal, remember to refer to the rubric below to make sure you’re fulfilling the requirements for this assignment.
Guidelines for Submission: Save your work in a Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, and one-inch margins.. Then, check your writing for errors. Once you have proofread your document, submit it via the Module 2, 2-5 Journal: Importance of Analysis Assignment link in Brightspace.

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Policy Analysis

To-Do Checklist

Policy Analysis

Introduction

Organizational policy alignment and adherence to laws and regulations is critical for overall corporate compliance and to decrease organizational risks (patient falls, medication errors, cyber hacks and PHI data breaches, infection control, et cetera). In this assignment, you will select, evaluate, and update one health care provider’s policy related to a significant regulatory risk to the health care organization.

Instructions 

Select one of two options:

Option A

If you work for a hospital or health care organization you may select a policy that is of interest to you then follow these assignment instructions:

  • Imagine you are a health care administrator at your current employer. Analyze the policy you selected, taking into consideration any recent changes. Evaluate what information and where that information would need to be updated. Propose revisions that are based on current identified standards and/or new guidelines that you have researched in the text or identified in other high-quality sources (that is, journals, government websites, and the like). Analyze the significance of the selected policy updates as it relates to potential litigation. (Why did the policy need updating? What threats do these changes help avoid?) Summarize your perspective on the revisions as well as any additional changes that should be considered. Present your work as an executive summary suitable for distribution to your organization’s board members.

Option B

If you do not work in the industry or do not have access to a health care policy, use the  Hahnemann Falls Policy to complete this assignment. Then follow these assignment instructions:

  • As you can see, this policy was written in 2012. Now, imagine you are a health care administrator working at the health care organization where this policy originates from. Analyze the policy, taking into consideration the changes in HIPAA and PHI since 2012. Evaluate what information and where that information would need to be updated for a current revision of this document. Locate the areas where you would update or add information to this 2012 version. Propose revisions that are based on current identified standards and/or new guidelines that you have researched in the text or identified in other high-quality sources (that is, journals, government websites, and the like). Analyze the significance of the selected policy updates as it relates to potential litigation. (Why did the policy need updating? What threats do these changes help avoid?) Summarize your perspective on the revisions as well as any additional changes that should be considered. Present your work as an executive summary suitable for distribution to your organization’s board members.

Your paper should be 3–5 pages long and should include a title page and references for a total of 5–7 pages.

 

Grading Criteria

The grading criteria for this executive summary is as follows. It must include the elements listed below, so be sure to address each point. You may also want to review the performance-level descriptions for each criterion in the scoring guide to see how your work will be assessed:

  1. Analyze a problematic or dated health care policy, explaining its primary purpose and effectiveness.
  2. Determine the issues the selected policy poses as it is written and any related ramifications.
  3. Research the changes needed to update and align the policy with current standards and guidelines.
  4. Propose revisions that are based on current identified standards and/or new guidelines.
  5. Analyze the significance of the selected policy updates as it relates to potential litigation.
  6. Summarize personal perspective on the revisions as well as any additional changes that should be considered.
  7. Meet clarity, writing mechanics, and formatting requirements.
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What is biodiversity?


1. What is biodiversity?

A. The variety of genes within a species

B. The variety of species within an ecosystem

C. The variety of ecosystems on the planet

D. All of the above

2. Which of the following best describes genetic diversity?

A. Variety of genes within an individual

B. Variety of genes within a population of a species

C. Variety of species within an ecosystem

D. All of the above

3. Which of the following best describes ecosystem diversity?

A. Variety within an ecosystem

B. Variety of ecosystems

C. Variety of species

D. All of the above

4. What leads to genetic diversity?

A. Natural selection

B. Reproduction

C. Genetic mutation

D. All of the above

5. Biodiversity varies depending on location. Which of the following places has the greatest biodiversity?

A. The Sahara Desert

B. The Nile River Delta

C. Mount Everest

D. The Amazon Rainforest

6. Approximately how many unique species have been named and categorized?

A. 500,000

B. 1.5 million

C. 15 million

D. 50 million

7. The extinction rate of species from non-human related causes is about one species per 100 years. What is the approximate current rate of extinction, including human related causes?

A. One per 100 years

B. One per 50 years

C. One per 10 years

D. One per year

8. What is the overall greatest threat to biodiversity?

A. Invasive species

B. Habitat loss

C. Use of pesticides

D. Over hunting and over harvesting

9. At what time scale is life able to adapt to environmental change?

A. Months to years

B. Decades to centuries

C. Centuries to millennia

D. All of the above

10. Biodiversity is important for natural ecosystems, but how much impact does declining biodiversity really have on human life?

A. Declining biodiversity minimally affects humans.

B. The only impact to humans is a decrease in the health of natural areas and less wildlife for us to enjoy.

C. The only major impact is that as species go extinct, we will lose opportunities for discovering new, lifesaving drugs.

D. Human life depends on biodiversity.

11. Ecosystem services are an integral part of biodiversity. What is an ecosystem service?

A. A government program to help preserve biodiversity

B. A process within an ecosystem that provides a benefit to humans or the environment

C. A system for assessing the level of biodiversity of a given region

D. The repair and rehabilitation of an ecosystem

12. The following is an example of an ecosystem service:

A. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

B. The cooling effect greenways have on an urban environment

C. Geographic information systems (GIS) and remote sensing

D. The process of clean up after an oil spill

13. What actions can an individual take to help preserve biodiversity?

A. Buy local produce

B. Drive and fly less

C. Use eco-friendly products

D. All of the above

14. What is a keystone species?

A. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem

B. A species that is key to our understanding of biodiversity

C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance

D. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are

15. What is an indicator species?

A. A species on the endangered species list

B. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are

C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance

D. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem

16. With respect to the scientific method , in the conclusion of an experiment, can you leave out experimental results that do no support your hypothesis?

A. No B. Yes

17. With respect to the scientific method , how many controls can you have in an experiment?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. As many as you would like

18. With respect to the scientific method ,how many independent variables can you have during an experiment?

A. 1 B. 2 C. As many as you would like D. The same amount as the number of controlled variables

19. With respect to the scientific method ,which of the following is not a requirements when creating a hypothesis for an experiment?

A. A hypothesis is based on knowledge and research.

B. A hypothesis is an idea about the solution to a problem.

C. A hypothesis is created after an experiment is completed.

D. A hypothesis should make a claim about how two factors are related.

20. What are the five steps of the scientific method in order from first to last?

A. Research, problem, hypothesis, project experimentation, conclusion

B. Research, problem, project experimentation, conclusion, hypothesis

C. Research, problem, project experimentation, hypothesis, conclusion

21. The scientific method is a process for experimentation that is used to explore observations and answer questions. What is the first step in completing the scientific method?

A. Project experimentation B. Hypothesis C. Problem D. Research

22. The second step to the scientific method is to state the “problem”, the scientific question to be solved. What is one requirement that needs to be fulfilled in order for the “problem” to be valid?

A. It needs to be a problem that has a number answer. B. It needs to be a problem that can be solved experimentally.

C. It needs to be a problem that has a yes or no answer.

23 A pattern or relationship that has been established based on a large amount of experimental data is A.

A. Theory

B. Hypothesis

C. Law

24. If the results of an experiment turn out differently from what you expected, then:

A. The experiment was a failure.

B. You should explore the possible reasons for this in the ‘conclusions’ section of your experimental write-up.

C. You need to redo your experiment until you get the expected result.

D. You didn’t follow the scientific method.

25. Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

A. Diffusion

B. Osmosis

C. Endocytosis

D. Facilitated diffusion

26. Chamber A contains 40% helium and Chamber B contains 20% helium. Chambers are connected by a tube the molecules are free to cross. Which of the following will occur?

A. Some helium will move from chamber A to chamber B

B. Some helium will move from chamber B to chamber A

C. Helium will remain concentrated in chamber A

D. All of the helium will move into chamber B

27. What will happen to an animal cell placed in a salt water solution?

A. The cell will shrink

B. The cell will expand

C. The cell will burst

D. The cell will shrink and then expand and then shrink again

28. An animal cell placed in a hypotonic solution will:

A. Die

B. Take on water

C. Lose water

D. Divide

29. Which of the following is a type of active transport?

A. Sodium potassium pump

B. Endocytosis

C. Exocytosis

D. All of these

30. Active transport requires:

A. A concentration gradient

B. Osmosis

C. Energy

D. A hypertonic solution

31. The scientific discipline that investigates the body’s structure and shape is calleD.

A. Anatomy.

B. Embryology.

C. Endocrinology.

D. Histology.

E. Physiology.

32. Select the correct statement concerning the tissue level.

A. Tissues consist of groups of similar cells that have a common function.

B. The four basic tissue types (epithelial, connective, muscular, and neural) play a definite but different role in the body.

C. Two or more tissue types that performs a specific function for the body constitutes an organ

D. All of the above

33. The sum of all chemical reactions in the body is termed.

A. Homeostasis

B. Physiology

C. Dynamic feedback

D. Metabolism

34. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed.

A. Organ

B. Serous membrane

C. Complex tissue

D. Organ system

35. The “basic unit of life” is:

A. The atom

B. Water

C. The cell

D. The chemical level of organization

36 . A group of cells of the same type form a(n):

A. Organ.

B. Organism.

C. Atom.

D. Tissue.

E. Organ system.

37. Which of the following best illustrates the increasing levels of complexity?

(1) Cells; (2) Organs; (3) Organelles; (4) Organism; (5) Tissues; (6) Organ systems

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1, 6.

C. 4, 3, 5, 6, 1, 2.

D. 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4.

E. 1, 5, 3, 2, 6, 4.

38. Which of the statements below is untrue with respect to organ systems?

A. They can share organs with other systems.

B. They function together to ensure wellness of the organism.

C. They act independently of each other.

D. They are groups of organs with a common function.

39. Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function?

A. Maintaining boundaries.

B. Movement.

C. Thinking.

D. Responsiveness.

E. Reproduction.

40. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used

A. To produce large numbers of identical DNA segments called gene probes.

B. Increase the amount of DNA to be searched in DNA sequencing procedures

C In water-quality tests

D. In HIV and HPV detection

E. To identify even poorly growing bacterial cultures

F. In all of the above

41 Which of the statements below are false with respect to gene probe technology?

A. Since first introduced in the 1970s, gene probe tests have been met only with periods of unbridled enthusiasm.

B.The ViraPap test is a commercially available gene probe test for detecting human papilloma virus (HPV), the virus that causes genital warts.

C. A similar technique can be used to conduct water-quality tests based on the detection of coliform bacteria such as E. coli

D. gene probes and PCR have been useful is in the detection of human immunodeficiency virus (H1V).

E. None of the above

42. When gene probe analysis becomes more widely accepted it will allow the identification of

A. Salmonella,

B. Shigella

C. Vibrio .

D. All of the above

43. Gene probe technology

A Is described as “exquisitely accurate”

B. Have a high degree of discrimination and reliability as strong as older identification methods.

C Allows one to get a result in a few short hours instead of many days

D. Is extremely sensitive

E. All of the above

44. Gene probe assays are widely available in kit forms for a variety of bacterial species except

A. Staphylococci

B. Haemophilus

C. Listeria

D Mycobacterium, and Neisseria

E Fungi (such as Blastomyces, Coccidioides, and Histoplasma).

45. The future value of gene probes will depend in part on

A. The development of ways to minimize false-positive reactions due to contamination

B. Methods of increasing the sensitivity of tests

C. On mechanisms for enhancing the signals from probes bound to their target molecules.

D. All of the above

E A & C only

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46. With respect to interpreting BLAST search results, when you do a BLAST search BLAST will come back with a result, that includes

A. The reference of the search program

B. The number of letters in your sequence C. The number of letters in the database D. A graphic representation of the sequence matches E. A list of matches sorted with the best matching sequences shown first F. All of the above

G. A, C & E only

47. In interpreting BLAST results select the answer below that is false.

A. If BLAST returns an E-value that is very small or close to zero, then you probably have a meaningful match that is not due to random chance. B. Since each match therefore contains 2 bits of information (and only 1 is correct out of 4 possibles), then the higher the score, the better is the match.

C. To interpret the matches, you therefore need to pay attention to whether the E-value is reasonably small

D. Two or more sequences may match extremely well but appear to belong to completely different species. E. None of the above

48. The process by which energy is obtained directly from sunlight and stored in organic compounds is called…

A. Transpiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Accessory pigmentation

D. Respiration

E. Crassulacean acid metabolism

49. Organisms that manufacture their own food from inorganic substances and energy (photosynthesize and/or chemosythesize) are called…

A. Heterotrophs

B. Protists

C. Tertiary consumers

D. Autotrophs

E. Fungi

50 All living things *indirectly* get their food from…

A. Photosynthesis

B. Particle spin

C. Only chemosynthesis

D. Pigments

E. Water

51. What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?

A. Animals only

B. Plants only

C. All of them

D. Crustaceans only

52. The initial reactions in photosynthesis are known collectively as…

A. Thylakenisis

B. The light reactions

C. The Muller-Cooper reactions

D. The dark reactions

E. The Calvin pathway

53. The (blanks) of photosynthesis are the (blanks) of cellular respiration.

A. Pigments, products

B. Electrons, protons

C. Nucleotides, nitrogen bases

D. Products, reactants

E. Reactants, products

53. An orange carrot…

A. Refracts yellow light

B. Reflects all wavelengths of light except orange

C. Transmits blue and green light

D. Absorbs all wavelengths of light except orange

E. Absorbs violet light, but reflects red and green light

54. Photophosphorylation involves ATP

A. Production during the light reaction of photosynthesis

B. Breakdown during the light reaction of photosynthesis

C. Formation during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

D. Breakdown during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

55. The net equation for photosynthesis produces

A. Water and carbon dioxide

B. Water and oxygen

C. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide

D. Carbohydrate and oxygen

56. As far as the light reaction of photosynthesis is concerned, what is the role of oxygen?

A. It is a necessary reactant.

B. It is a waste product.

C. It is a product that is then utilized in the dark reaction.

D. It is not involved as a product or a reactant.

57. The essential initial role of light in initiating the light reaction of photosynthesis is to produce

A. Free neutrons

B. Free electrons

C. Free oxygen

D. ATP

58. True or False question

 The proper way to focus a microscope is to start with the highest power objective (100X) first.

A. True

B. False

59. Resolving power is the ability to discern two objects as being distinct objects.

A. True

B. False

60. Which of the Statements below is false? A. Resolving power is also influenced by the NA of the objective. B. The air space between the slide and lens can be replaced by a drop of immersion oil which has a different refractive index than air. C. The use of oil immersion is an absolute necessity when using the 40X objective. D. When using the 40X and 100X objectives, only use the fine focus.

61. During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments? A. Metaphase  B. Early Prophase C. Anaphase  D. Late Prophase 62. Equatorial plate of the mitotic spindle is formed during the _______. A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase C. Late prophase  D. Early prophase

63. Mitotic cell division is initiated in the _______. A. Centromere  B. Centriole C. Mucleus  D. Mitotic spindle  64. During which stage of mitosis do nucleoli reappear? A. Anaphase  B. Early Prophase  C. Telophase D. Late Prophase  65. The number of chromosomes in a human cell is _______. A. 2  B. 4  C. 23  D. 4666. The resting stage of the cell is known as the _______. A. Interphase B. Telophase  C. Anaphase  D. Prophase  67. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate to form two sets of daughter chromosomes? A. Anaphase B. Telophase  C. Prophase  D. Interphase  68. Genetic information is transferred from parent to daughter cells through the _______. A. Mitochondria  B. Endoplasmic reticulum  C. Centrioles  D. Nucleus 69. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Metaphase  B. Telophase  C. Anaphase D. Prophase  70. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Metaphase  B. Anaphase  C. Telophase D. Prophase

71. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Telophase  72. Which of the following is the longest stage of mitosis? A. Telophase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Anaphase  73. During which stage of mitosis does longitudinal splitting of the chromosomes occur? A. Prophase  B. Anaphase C. Telophase  D. Metaphase

74. The interphase and mitosis together constitute the cell cycle. A. True B. False  75. The nuclear membrane is formed around the newly-formed sets of daughter chromosomes during the telophase. A. True B. False  76. During mitosis, loosely arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened and distinct during the metaphase. A. True  B. False

77. Mendel’s second principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic will not affect the inheritance of another characteristic. What is the principle called?

A. Mutation

B. Fertilization

C. Crossing over

D. Independent assortment

78. Which statement describes how two organisms may show the same trait, yet have different genotypes for that phenotype?

A. One is homozygous dominant and the other is heterozygous.

B. One is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive.

C. Both are heterozygous for the dominant trait

D. Both are homozygous for the dominant trait.

79. Sexual reproduction contributes to

A. Less genetic variation within a population.

B. More identical genotypes within a population.

C. Greater genetic variation within a population.

D. Greater mutation rate within a population.

80. Which of the following genotypes has the potential for the greatest genetic variation in the offspring?

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive.

Heterozygous crossed with homozygous recessive.

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous dominant.

Heterozygous crossed with another heterozygous individual.

81. In pea plants, yellow pea pods are dominant to green pea pods and round-shaped pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. How do the offspring of two plants that are heterozygous for yellow, round pods result in four different phenotypes? Is it the result of

A. Random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.

B. Random fertilization during sexual reproduction.

C. Crossing over between chromosomes during meiosis.

D. Mutation in the DNA of the gametes.

82. In pea plants, yellow is a dominant trait and green is a recessive trait. In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the pea color trait, what percent of the offspring should have yellow peas?

A. 100%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

83. Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel’s experiments included all listed below except

A. True-breeding varieties were scarce.

B. He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.

C. They have relatively short generation time.

D. Sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.

84. Pea plants can

A. Self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible

B. Self-fertilize

C. Only cross-fertilize

D. Reproduce without pollination

85. When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant to recessive ratio in the F1generation was

A. 3:1

B. 4:0

C. 4:1

D. 4:0

E. 9:3:3:1

86. On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?

A. 13

B. 18

C. Y

D.15

E. X

87. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is

A. YO

B. XXY

C. XYY

D. XO

88. In Mendel’s F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because

A. The trait is sex-linked

B. Both parents were heterozygous purple

C. One parent was homozygous recessive

D. Both parents were heterozygous white

89. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was

A. 1:3:1

B. 3:1

C. 1:1

D. 9:7

E. 9:3:3:1

90. The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the

A. Genotype

B. Phenotype

C. Phototype

E. Stereotype

91. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be

A. Homozygous

B. Heteromologous

C. Homologous

D. Heterozygous

E. Diplozygous

92. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?

A. WWSs

B. WwSS

C. WwSs

D. WWss

E. wwSs

93.Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed

A. sS

B. ss

C. SS

D. Ss

E. tall

94. The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is the most common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?

A. RR

B. rr

C. WW

D. ww

E. red

95. In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?

A. 3/4

B. 2/3

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

E. 1/4

96. The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.

A. True

B. False

97. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected individuals having at least one affected parent.

A) True

B) False

98 One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.

A. True

B. False

99. Down syndrome results from:

A. The absence of one chromosome in position 21

B. The presence of an extra chromosome in position 21

C. The absence of both chromosomes in position 21

D. Crossing over on the chromosomes in position 21

E. None of the above

100. Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?

A. Down syndrome

B. Barr body

C. Turner syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

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What is Evolution?

Research Topic ( Is Evolution True)
Write an essay that reflects o the growing understanding of what Evolution is and what it isn’t.  The essay should include your personl critique and evaluation as related to the concept of evolution. It should also include philosophical, theological, and sociological reflections as well as demonstrating a scientific understanding of evolution.
Evolution Research Paper Outline
 
Definition
What is Evolution?
Historical development of the ideas/hypotheses regarding Evolution
General literature review on how evolution ideas came about
Scientific Evidence about Evolution
Fossils
Homologous structures
Genes
Embryology
What is Natural Selection?
Is evolution a well supported, unifying principle or just a Theory?
Is Evolution Ture. -you decide
7 page 6 references

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Nursing journal reflection in clinical rotation of obstetric and gynecology

Nursing journal reflection in clinical rotation of obstetric and gynecology

Description

Describe how you met your learning goals for the obstetrics and gynecology clinical rotation course and reflect upon the most interesting or complex case you have experienced in during this clinical rotation.

1)Thorough identification of the importance of the subject matter to the individual, clinical, and the profession. Supports this through personal experience and evidence-based information.

2)Provides a well written reflection that is clearly connected to the outcomes and clinical insight is evident in the writing.

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