Instructions
Your Leadership Reflection Journal should exhibit a personal reflection of your present leadership competencies and also possible adjustments that could be made to your leadership approach. Importantly, your Journal entry should be in light of the various concepts that have in covered each week in the course. Also of importance, the Leadership Reflection Journal should be far beyond a mere casual discussion. It should demonstrate a high level of understanding and should also provide adequate integration of authoritative sources as assigned for reading each week.

  • You should integrate other scholarly sources, most preferably to review literature retrieved from the University research library.
  • Your weekly Leadership Reflection Journal should be no less than one page and no more than two pages in length.

Assignment Objective

  • Each week you will be required to submit a Leadership Reflection Journal.

Assignment Purpose

  • This journal should be written in the first person and should be critically reflective. As such, you will discuss the most important concepts that you have learned throughout the week and how those concepts may be applied to your leadership career.

PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief .docx
Page 1 of 7
ASSESSMENT BRIEF – Assessment 2
Subject Code and Title PROJ6004: Contracts and Procurement
Assessment Assessment 2: Contracts and Procurement Review of
the case study and associated Learning Resources,
including detailed analysis of findings.
Individual/Group Individual Report
Length 2400 words
Learning Outcomes 1. Critically evaluate the risks associated
with contract and procurement
management approaches and make
recommendationsto global project
sponsors with regard to ‘best practice’ in
this area.
2. Apply judgement and initiative in the
development of ‘best practice’ contract and
procurement process for global project
management, identifying the external factors
that need to be considered and mitigated for
in every instance.
3. Analyse the responsibilities of the
procurement manager and project manager
necessary to ensure stakeholder satisfaction
and successful project outcomes.
Submission By 11:55pm end of Module 4
Weighting 40% There are 3 parts to Assessment 2
Total Marks 40 marks
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief .docx
Page 2 of 7
Context:
General
Procurement and contracts are integral to successful project management. Planning for
purchases and acquisitions, requests for proposal, vendor selection, contract
administration, and contract closure are integral parts of the process. Learning fromcase
studies and benchmarking against better practices, standards and excellence is vitalto
understand complexity of issues and successful strategies for procurement and contract
management. It will also ensure improved responsiveness to key issues, promote supplierclient relationships through proactive management of risks and ultimately deliver higher
level of focus on performance-basedoutcomes.
Specific (Assessment 2 Context)
Assessment 2 is about uncovering complexities in the procurement context generally,
identifying key issues, looking at leadership, governance and key themes that will allow
improved focus, and learning.
Assessment 2 is based on understanding the case study and other module Learning
Resources.
 Students are encouraged to look at the Essential and Highly Recommended Learning
Resources and other public documents associated with the case study.
 However, a careful thorough review of the report is required to understand the
contracts and procurement issues that have arisen during the project execution,
ongoing risks mitigations and lessons learnt that can be applied to other large
infrastructure projects.
 Assessment 2 aims to encourage a deeper understanding of the challenges faced in large
complex projects – particularly with procurement methods that involve private-sector
finance to deliver complex projects – which is a significant method of procurement
because it can mobilise global financial and procurement capability to innovatively build
public infrastructure and facilities to meet the needs of the growing population.
 Students are also encouraged to understand and explore the related organisational
issues, stakeholders and the funding and finance aspects associated with the project.
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief .docx
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Instructions:
Assessment 2 Individual Report (overall 2,400 Words) is designed around analyzing the
procurement in the case study project. This assessment comprises of three parts:
 Part A: Introduce and summarise the procurement context and scope (life cyclejourney
of the case study project). Identify the project procurement components and tender
evaluation that may have been used in the case study (according to your knowledge
from the theory you have studied).
 Part B: Describe the complexities (and key issues/risks), discuss the project environment
and organisation aspects, leadership and governance and how these have influenced
outcomes.
 Part C: Identify or suggest key mitigations and possible learnings. Explain how those
learnings may require changesto roles and responsibilities of key project resources,
changes to procurement briefsor specifications, scope and the procurement process
itself. Identify dependencies and common themes.
Learning Activities and Output:
The learning process will involve the deconstruction of the case study material toanswer
questions, examine lessons learnt and highlight issues for further discussion. You willbe
encouraged to reflect on your case study findings in order to identify contracts and
procurement management best practices which can be applied in the future to significant
projects that you may lead as project manager or oversee in a seniorrole.
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief .docx
Page 4 of 7
Learning Resources:
 Resource on APA style:
The URL/page for the TUA referencing guides is
http://onlinelibrary.tua.edu.au/skills/referencing
 Resource on report writing:
Victoria University of Wellington (2013). How to write a business report. Schoolof
Marketing and Internal Business and Student Learning Support Service, Wellington,
New Zealand.
http://www.victoria.ac.nz/vbs/teaching/publications/VBS-report-writing-guide2013-July.pdf
 Resource on writing case study reports
Monash University (2015). Case study report (sample). Learning Support, Language
and Learning Online, Melbourne, Australia.
http://www.monash.edu.au/lls/llonline/writing/general/report/1.xml
 Refer to the subject planner and Modules readings for other learning
resources specific to Assessment 2.
Assessment Criteria:
Assessment 2 (Parts A, B, C) Individual Report (40%)
 Content, audience and purpose (30%)
 Knowledge and understanding (30%)
 Correct citation of key resources and evidence (20%)
 Effective communication (20%)
The Reflection Journal will also be assessed and has a weight of 10% out of 40%. In addition,
students may wish to consider that the audience for the Reflection Journal is the Learning
Facilitator and or the student’s employer or sponsor. Therefore, effective communication of
ideas is vital recognising the audience too. See learning rubrics in the following pagesfor
details.
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief 2019.docx Page 5 of 7
Learning Rubrics –Assessment 2 (Part A, B, C)
Assessment
Attributes
Fail
(0-49)
Pass
(50-64)
Credit
(65-74)
Distinction
(75-84)
High Distinction
(85-100)
Content,
Audience and
Purpose
(30%)
Does not meet
minimum standard
Demonstrates no
awareness of context
and/or purpose of the
assignment.
Meets minimum
standard
Demonstrates limited
awareness of context
and/or purpose of the
assignment
Moves beyond
minimum standard
Demonstrates
consistent awareness
of context and/or
purpose of the
assignment.
Exceeds minimum
standard
Demonstrates an
advanced and
integrated
understanding of
context and/or
purpose of the
assignment.
Exceeds minimum
standard and exhibits
high levels of
independence
Consistently
demonstrates a
systematic and critical
understanding of
context and purpose
of the assignment.
Knowledge and
understanding
(30%)
Limited
understanding of
required concepts
and knowledge
Key components of
the assignment are
not addressed.
Knowledge or
understanding of
the field or
discipline.
Resembles a recall
or summary of key
ideas.
Often
conflates/confuses
assertion of
personal opinion
with information
substantiated by
evidence from the
Thorough knowledge
or understanding of
the field or
discipline/s. Supports
personal opinion and
information
substantiated by
evidence from the
research/course
materials.
Demonstrates a
capacity to explain
and apply relevant
concepts.
Highly developed
understanding of the
field or discipline/s.
Discriminates
between assertion of
personal opinion and
information
substantiated by
robust evidence
from the
research/course
materials and
extended reading.
A sophisticated
understanding of the
field or discipline/s.
Systematically and
critically
discriminates
between assertion of
personal opinion and
information
substantiated by
robust evidence
from the
research/course
materials and
extended reading.
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief 2019.docx Page 6 of 7
research/course
materials.
Well demonstrated
capacity to explain
and apply relevant
concepts.
Mastery of concepts
and application to
new
situations/further
learning.
Correct citation of
key resources and
evidence
(20%)
Demonstrates
inconsistent use of
good quality,
credible and
relevant resources
to support and
develop ideas.
There are mistakes in
using the APA style.
Demonstrates use of
credible and
relevant resources
to support and
develop ideas, but
these are not always
explicit or well
developed.
There are no mistakes
in using the APA style.
Demonstrates use of
high quality, credible
and relevant
resources to support
and develop ideas.
There are no mistakes
in using the APA style.
Demonstrates use of
good quality,
credible and relevant
resources to support
and develop
arguments and
statements. Shows
evidence of wide
scope within the
organisation for
sourcing evidence
There are no mistakes
in using the APA style.
Demonstrates use of
high-quality, credible
and relevant
resources to support
and develop
arguments and
position statements.
Shows evidence of
wide scope within
and without the
organisation for
sourcing evidence
There are no mistakes
in using the APA style.
Effective
communication
(20%)
Difficult to understand
for audience, no
logical/clear structure,
poor flow of ideas,
argument lacks
supporting evidence.
No effort is made to
keep audience
engaged, audience
Information,
arguments and
evidence are
presented in a way
that is not always
clear and logical.
Attempts are made to
keep the audience
engaged, but not
Information,
arguments and
evidence are well
presented, mostly
clear flow of ideas and
arguments.
The audience is mostly
engaged, line of
Information,
arguments and
evidence are very well
presented, the
presentation islogical,
clear and well
supported by
evidence.
Expertly presented;
the presentation is
logical, persuasive, and
well supported by
evidence,
demonstrating a clear
flow of ideas and
arguments.
PROJ6004 Assessment 2 Brief 2019.docx Page 7 of 7
cannot follow the line
of reasoning.
Little use of
presentation aids, or
the presentation aids
and material used are
irrelevant.
always successful. Line
of reasoning is often
difficult to follow.
Presentation aids are
used more for effect
than relevance.
reasoning is easy to
follow.
Effective use of
presentation aids.
Engages the audience,
demonstrates cultural
sensitivity.
Carefully and well
prepared
presentations aids are
used.
Engages and sustains
audience’s interest in
the topic,
demonstrates high
levels of cultural
sensitivity
Effective use of diverse
presentation aids,
including graphics and
multi-media.

This is extremely late. My class ends in 5 days, please read all material to get this done right! I have attached information!

Assignment 2: Health Communication Campaign—Audience Profile Analysis
In M1: Assignment 3, you chose a public health problem and described its history and background. Based on this, you started developing a health communication campaign for a specific population by identifying and explaining its goals and objectives.
You will continue to develop this health communication campaign in this assignment.
Using the readings for this module, conduct an audience profile analysis. Include the following:

Provide demographic information about the population the health problem affects.
Describe attitudes, norms, and beliefs about the health problem as they apply to the population of interest.
Explain possible stages of behavior change or levels of diffusion related to the health issue.

Support your statements with examples and scholarly references.
Write a 3–5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Health Promotion Among Diverse Population

Analyze the health status of a specific minority group. Select a minority group that is represented in the United States (examples include American Indian/Alaskan Native, Asian American, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian, or Pacific Islander).
In an essay of 750-1,000 words, compare and contrast the health status of the minority group you have selected to the national average. Consider the cultural, socioeconomic, and sociopolitical barriers to health. How do race, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, and education influence health for the minority group you have selected? Address the following in your essay:

  1. What is the current health status of this minority group?
  2. How is health promotion defined by this group?
  3. What health disparities exist for this group?
  4. Describe at least one approach using the three levels of health promotion prevention (primary, secondary, and tertiary) that is likely to be the most effective given the unique needs of the minority group you have selected. Provide an explanation of why it might be the most effective choice.

Cite a minimum of three references in the paper.
You will find important health information regarding minority groups by exploring the following Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) links:

  1. Minority Health: http://www.cdc.gov/minorityhealth/index.html
  2. Racial and Ethnic Approaches to Community Health (REACH): http://www.cdc.gov/chronicdisease/resources/publications/aag/reach.htm
  3. Racial and Ethnic Minority Populations: http://www.samhsa.gov/specific-populations/racial-ethnic-minority

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

FICTION ESSAY INSTRUCTIONS
You must complete the required textbook readings in preparation for the Fiction Essay. This will equip you to objectively respond to the readings by compiling information from a variety of sources in order to compose a persuasive analysis of a literary work. You will also learn to follow standard usage in English grammar and sentence structure; identify the theme and structure of each literary selection as well as the significant characteristics or elements of each genre studied; and evaluate the literary merit of a work (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
In Module/Week 3, you will write a 750-word (approximately 3 pages) essay that compares and contrasts 2 stories from the Fiction Unit. Before you begin writing the essay, carefully read the below guidelines for developing your paper topic and review the Fiction Essay Grading Rubric to see how your submission will be graded. Gather all of your information, plan the direction of your essay, and organize your ideas by developing a 1-page thesis statement and outline for your essay. Format the thesis statement and the outline in a single Microsoft Word document using current MLA, APA, or Turabian style (whichever corresponds to your degree program); check your Perrine’s Literature textbook, the Harbrace Essentials Handbook and/or the link contained in the Assignment Instructions Folder to ensure correct citation format is used.
Your Fiction Essay must include a title page, a thesis/outline page, and the essay itself, followed by a works cited/references/bibliography page listing any primary and/or secondary texts cited in your essay.
You must submit your thesis and outline by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 2 for instructor feedback.
Submit your Fiction Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3
Guidelines for Developing Your Paper Topic
The “Writing about Literature” section of your Perrine’s Literature textbook (pp. 1–54) and the “Writing” section of Harbrace Essentials (pp. 1–12, 15–16, 18–21, 22–28) provide helpful pointers for writing your literary essay and for academic writing in general. Be sure that you have read these sections before doing any further work for this assignment. Take particular notice of the examples of fiction essays on pp. 38–43 of Perrine’s Literature textbook.
Choose 2 of the following short stories to compare and contrast in your essay:
• “The Lottery” by Shirley Jackson
• “The Destructors” by Graham Greene
• “The Rocking-Horse Winner” by D.H. Lawrence
• “Young Goodman Brown” by Nathaniel Hawthorne
• “The Prodigal Son” by St. Luke
 
Also, at least 1 of these elements of fiction must be the focus of your essay:
• Conflict/Plot/Structure
• Characterization
• Setting
• Theme/Authors’ Purposes
• Point of View, and/
• Tone/Style/Irony/Symbol/Imagery
If you need help focusing your essay, ask yourself questions that correspond to your chosen element(s).
Conflict/Plot/Structure (This is not a summary of the stories)
• What are the basic conflicts? How do these conflicts build tension and lead to major, complicated incidents and climactic moment(s)?
• What are the ways in which each major character experiences conflict (either with self, with other characters, or with the social and/or physical environment)?
• How are the conflicts resolved? Do the protagonists succeed in achieving their goals?
• Which character receives your deepest sympathy and why?
Characterization
• Who are the main characters in the stories?
• What are their outstanding qualities? Does the author give any indication as to how or why the character developed these qualities?
• What are the characters’ emotions, attitudes, and behaviors? What do these indicate to the reader about the character?
• Can the characters’ motivations be determined from the text?
Setting
• Where and when do the stories take place (remember to include such details as geographic location, time of year, time period, if the setting is rural or urban, etc.)?
• Do the settings make the stories believable or credible? How does setting impact the plot of the story, and how would the plot be affected if the story took place in another setting?
• Are the characters influenced by their setting? How might they behave if they were in a different setting?
• What atmosphere or mood does the setting create (for example, darkness may create a mood of fear or unhappiness while light or bright colors may create one of happiness)?
• Is the setting or any aspect of it a symbol, or does the setting express particular ideas?
• Does setting create expectations that are the opposite of what occurs?
my specie is : sea anemones
In this assignment you will use scholarly articles and approved webpages to provide a 500 word, referenced summary of management and conservation efforts around your species. This includes identifying the key threats impacting your species. As in previous assignments, this summary must include a reference for each sentence. Cite at least five sources – these can scientific papers and/or approved webpages. At the end of your summary be sure to include a list of all of the references you cited in the text (a bibliography) that allows me to link the in-text references to this list.

Topics to include

Threats (approximately 100 words): Give an overview and summarize the different kind of threats facing your species. These may include but are not limited to: bycatch, climate change, resource competition with humans, poaching, or directed harvest (e.g., overexploitation of commercially valuable species).
Focus on a single threat (approximately 150 words): Go into more detail on a single threat (or multiple closely related threats). For example, you may focus on the bycatch levels of a species in several different fisheries or gear types.  In this section, focus on describing the threat, extent of the threat, and the impact it has on the population.
Management or conservation efforts (approximately 200 words): In this section, discuss and summarize the management or conservation efforts that have been used to try to mitigate threats to your species. For example, you might discuss closed areas closed to fishing or the use of different gear modifications to reduce bycatch, or beach patrols to reduce predation or illegal harvesting of sea turtle eggs.

Figure related to management or conservation

In addition, include at least one figure related to management or conservation of your species. Examples might include a map of areas where boats are restricted to reduce noise impacts on your species, an image of gear modifications being used to reduce bycatch of your species, or an image of sea turtle hatcheries used to increase the number of sea turtle hatchlings.  This is a figure that comes directly from one of your sources, NOT one you make yourself.  You can feel free to just take a screen shot of the figure or image and insert that below your summary but be sure to include a caption and reference (where it came from) for your figure.

What you will submit:

So in summary, for this assignment you will submit:

  1. A referenced, 500-word summary of threats, management and conservation of your species includes references from 5 sources (scientific papers and/or approved webpages)
  2. A figure from one of the sources that includes a caption and a reference, and
  3. A reference list or bibliography that includes references in the text and for your figure.

If it is helpful to you to see an example of what this summary looks like, please see the attached Word document.

Competency

Determine and interpret the linear correlation coefficient, and use linear regression to find a best fit line for a scatter plot of the data and make predictions.

Scenario

According to the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS), the probability of a magnitude 6.7 or greater earthquake in the Greater Bay Area is 63%, about 2 out of 3, in the next 30 years. In April 2008, scientists and engineers released a new earthquake forecast for the State of California called the Uniform California Earthquake Rupture Forecast (UCERF).
As a junior analyst at the USGS, you are tasked to determine whether there is sufficient evidence to support the claim of a linear correlation between the magnitudes and depths from the earthquakes. Your deliverables will be a PowerPoint presentation you will create summarizing your findings and an excel document to show your work.
Concepts Being Studied

  • Correlation and regression
  • Creating scatterplots
  • Constructing and interpreting a Hypothesis Test for Correlation using r as the test statistic

You are given a spreadsheet Click for more options
that contains the following information:

  • Magnitude measured on the Richter scale
  • Depth in km

Using the spreadsheet, you will answer the problems below in a PowerPoint presentation.

What to Submit

The PowerPoint presentation should answer and explain the following questions based on the spreadsheet provided above.

  • Slide 1: Title slide
  • Slide 2: Introduce your scenario and data set including the variables provided.
  • Slide 3: Construct a scatterplot of the two variables provided in the spreadsheet. Include a description of what you see in the scatterplot.
  • Slide 4: Find the value of the linear correlation coefficient r and the critical value of r using α = 0.05. Include an explanation on how you found those values.
  • Slide 5: Determine whether there is sufficient evidence to support the claim of a linear correlation between the magnitudes and the depths from the earthquakes. Explain.
  • Slide 6: Find the regression equation. Let the predictor (x) variable be the magnitude. Identify the slope and the y-intercept within your regression equation.
  • Slide 7: Is the equation a good model? Explain. What would be the best predicted depth of an earthquake with a magnitude of 2.0? Include the correct units.
  • Slide 8: Conclude by recapping your ideas by summarizing the information presented in context of the scenario.

Along with your PowerPoint presentation, you should include your Excel document which shows all calculations.

  • attachment

    Deliverable_06_Data_ma.xlsx
  • attachment

    Screenshot2020-11-10171458.png

NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

Find below the NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers, questions only, if you need the answers, please place your order with us.

ORDER CUSTOM-WRITTEN PAPERS OR ONLINE EXAM HELP

  1. The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least worrisome type.
  2. Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics. She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale. She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure. Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to confirm the diagnosis?
  3. Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?
  4. A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of the following except a:
  5. Kevin is a 14-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a fever of 102.5° F and significant right ear pain. He appears quite ill and says he feels nauseous. Otoscopic evaluation reveals pain to palpation, a very erythematous and bulging tympanic membrane with bullous myringitis. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be selected to cover:
  6. P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  7. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?
  8. J.R. is a 55-year-old male who presents for a commercial driver’s license physical examination with a blood pressure of 170/102 mm Hg. He has no medical history and is without complaint. Which of the following findings constitutes hypertensive urgency? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  9. Because of the commonly recognized adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics, annual laboratory assessment for patients taking these medications should include a:
  10. K.R. presents for an evaluation of eye discomfort. He works in a fabricating shop for a custom automobile restoration company and while working he felt like something flew into his eye. He was wearing eye protection at the time but still has the sensation that something is there. Physical examination is significant for some tearing and he reports a persistent sense of something in his eye. Which of the following is not indicated in the diagnostic evaluation? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  11. D.E. is a 41-year-old female who had lumbar surgery two days ago to repair a ruptured nucleus pulposus. She has been doing well postoperatively but today is complaining of resting fatigue and some shortness of breath at rest. In ruling out a pulmonary embolus the AGACNP first orders a:
  12. Mr. Nixon is being treated with unfractionated heparin infusion for acute pulmonary embolus. In order to avoid a potentially fatal complication of heparin infusion, the AGACNP monitors:
  13. Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when the patient reports the primary symptom as:
  14. Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen. Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:
  15. Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100 bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  16. A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells you that he is really going to quit smoking this time. He acknowledges that he has been “sneaking” cigarettes in the hospital for two days, but he has established a timeline to decrease the number of cigarettes daily. According to his plan his last cigarette will be the last day of the month. This patient’s behavior is consistent with which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?
  17. While assessing a patient with a known psychiatric history, the AGACNP knows that the primary difference between a psychotic and neurotic disorders is: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  18. L.T. is an 85-year-old male who is admitted for evaluation of profound diarrhea that has produced significant dehydration. He also complains of being very tired lately, and feeling like he is going to vomit all of the time. His vital signs are significant for a pulse of 41 b.p.m. and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. A gastrointestinal evaluation including stool for blood, white blood cells, and ova and parasites is negative. He insists that he has not started any new medications or made any diet changes; the only thing new is that he got new eye drops for his glaucoma. The AGACNP correctly assumes that his new eye drops are:
  19. Janice is a 19-year-old female who presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She is pale, diaphoretic, agitated, and convinced she is having a stroke. Her vital signs include a temperature of 98.9° F, pulse of 114 beats per minute, respirations of 32 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/74 mm Hg. Diagnostic evaluation is negative and Janice is diagnosed with an acute panic attack. The initial treatment of choice is:
  20. Lorraine is a 41-year-old female who presents for an asthma follow-up visit. She says she feels very well, has almost no daytime symptoms, and is using her inhaled corticosteroid medication daily as prescribed. Her PEFR is 85% of her personal best. The best approach to this patient is to:
  21. Mr. Owen is a 37-year-old patient who has been admitted for surgical resection of a malignant tumor in his lung. His physical recovery has been uneventful and he is being prepared for discharge. While discussing his ongoing cancer therapy with Mr. Owen, the AGACNP determines that he has experienced persistent, excessive anxiety and worry almost every day for more than one year. What other aspect of Mr. Owen’s psychosocial history would be required to made a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?
  22. Kevin T. is a 49-year-old male who is being discharged after hospitalization for an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. This is his first hospitalization and his first chronic medical diagnosis. Aside from his elevated cardiac isoenzymes and troponins, his laboratory profile was essentially within normal limits. The only apparent cardiac risk factor is an LDL cholesterol of 200 mg/dL. Initiating an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is an example of which level of prevention for Kevin?
  23. You are evaluating a patient who has been admitted to the emergency room after being arrested for starting a fight in a local sports’ bar. The patient is now being cooperative, but reports that he has been in treatment for PTSD for months. He has been prescribed fluoxetine but has not noticed any improvement in symptoms, and now has been arrested for violence. The AGACNP knows that the next step in medication management is likely to include:
  24. Mrs. Salter is an 81-year-old lady who presents for evaluation of near-syncopal episodes. Her 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, and comprehensive metabolic panel are all essentially normal. A urinalysis shows some trace protein but is otherwise normal. A 24-hour rhythm monitor demonstrates rare premature ventricular contractions. Mrs. Salter has been in good health and had her first episode at her aerobics class. She only gets lightheaded when she exerts herself. Her heart auscultates for a grade III/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. The AGACP considers that the likely cause of the syncope is:
  25. Who among the following patients is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolus?
  26. Mrs. Birdsong is an 85-year-old female who has been admitted for surgical repair of a hip fracture. She is in remarkably good spirits and is quite talkative. She readily answers all of the questions on her intake assessment, and readily acknowledges information provided during her room orientation. Later while talking with the patient’s son the AGACNP learns that the patient has had significant cognitive impairment for a few years. She has virtually no short term memory, but compensates by confabulating. Her son says she is generally very happy as long as there is no change in her day to day routine. This history is most consistent with which form of dementia?
  27. Mrs. Radovich is an 80-year-old female with a variety of chronic medical conditions which are reasonably well controlled. She generally enjoys a good quality of life and is active with her family. Today her only concern is that she is having problems with her vision. She notices that while trying to look at pictures of her great grandchildren she can’t seem to focus on their faces. She also reports increased trouble reading—she cannot seem to see the words that she is looking at, and her reading glasses do not help. Further evaluation of Mrs. Radovich should include assessment with:
  28. R.J. is a 55-year-old female who presents with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. She cannot smile, raise her eyebrow or even close her left eye, The immediate approach to this patient should include:
  29. A 78-year-old male present for a physical examination. He has no discomfort or complaints other than a general decrease in vision, but it helps when he puts things under a bright light to read. He admits that while driving at night the streetlights appear to be a bit distorted and his night vision is pretty poor. Given the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP expects which of the following physical findings?
  30. Jason is a 46-year-old male who is being managed for sepsis. He has HIV/AIDS and has had a prolonged hospitalization characterized by a variety of complications. He was extubated 3 days ago but continues gastric decompression with a nasogastric tube(NGT), total parenteral nutrition and antibiotic therapy via a central venous catheter, and urinary drainage via a Foley catheter. He continues to demonstrate consistent low grade fevers but all points of insertion of his tubes are normal to inspection, a chest radiograph demonstrates improvement of his pneumonia, and his urinalysis shows no bacteria, leukocytes, or nitrites. The AGACNP should next order: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  31. The interpretation of a chest radiography should follow a systematic approach to ensure that all vital structures are evaluated and important clinical findings are not missed. The last thing to be assessed when looking at chest radiography should be the _____________:
  32. The Short Confusion Assessment Method (Short-CAM) is a widely used four item tool that assesses delirium in the hospitalized patient. It includes observation of all of the following except: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  33. Ms. Yang has been hospitalized for 5 days for the management of a gastrointestinal bleeding. She appears to have stabilized hemodynamically, but today she had a temperature of 101.9° F and chest radiography demonstrates a diagnosis of pneumonia. The AGACNP knows that the diagnostic evaluation for hospital acquired pneumonia for all patients must include:
  34. Most psychosocial theories of aging center around the core concept that successful aging requires acceptance of a series of changes or losses that predictably occur later in the life span. The theory that specifically addresses coming to terms with the inevitability of death is known as:
  35. All of the following conditions are risk factors for pulmonary embolus except:
  36. A patient is diagnosed with acute descending aortic aneurysm and hypertension should be immediately started on which medication pending surgical evaluation?
  37. Jason is a 27-year-old with a long history of intermittently controlled asthma. He is currently prescribed Advair daily with albuterol as needed for symptoms. Today he presents to the emergency department with cough and wheezing and difficulty catching his breath. His FEV1is 51% at the time of presentation. He is given alternating albuterol and ipratropium nebulizer treatments along with oral prednisone. After one hour his FEV1 has increased 65%. The appropriate disposition for Jason at this point is:
  38. A patient in the intensive care unit suddenly becomes tachypneic and dyspneic. The physical examination reveals pale, cool, clammy skin and an arterial blood gas demonstrates hypocapnea and hypoxia. Pulmonary artery pressure demonstrates a pattern consistent with obstructive shock. The AGACNP knows that which of the following causes of this presentation is most likely? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  39. Mr. Bowers is an 81-year-old male who is being terminally extubated at the request of his family due to the presence of a large subdural hematoma with a shift; the patient is not initiating respirations on his own and the prognosis is very poor. After he is extubated he begins to initiate his own respirations and 24 hours later has not expired yet. The decision is made to leave him in the hospital on a general medical floor rather than transfer to another facility for hospice. Which of the following is the best indicator that the patient’s death is imminent?
  40. A patient is newly admitted to your service for open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. She seems very down, and as you talk with her you realize that her mood is not just related to her hip fracture. Which of the following symptoms would not be consistent with major depressive disorder?
  41. “C” is the correct answer. Alzheimer’s dementia is statistically the most common form of dementia and is characterized by a long trajectory that progresses to include confabulation. Additionally, patients with this form of dementia are very reliant upon routine and may be distressed when it is disrupted. “A” is not correct; Lewy body dementia characteristically progresses much more quickly and produces an angry demeanor. “B” is incorrect because vascular dementia typically produces a more depressive affect and is not characterized by confabulation; additionally, patients with vascular dementia often have a medical history consistent with vascular risk factors. “D” is not correct as there is no apparent history of Parkinson’s disease.
  42. What is the primary purpose of using eye ointments or lubricants to patients under general anesthesia, on paralytics, or in long-term comatose states? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  43. When reading a 12-lead electrocardiogram, the AGACNP knows that all 12 leads are required to provide:
  44. A 49-year-old male presents for evaluation of chest tightness. It has happened before, but he just ignored it and it went away. Today he just could not ignore it anymore. He has always enjoyed good health and says he has never been told that he has any chronic medical conditions like high blood pressure or diabetes. A 12-lead ECG demonstrates changes consistent with inferior wall ischemia. Both his symptoms and inferior wall changes improve with the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin. Consistent with ACS protocol, this patient’s assessment is consistent with:
  45. Mr. Rosen is a 49-year-old male who is being managed for an acute myocardial infarction. He develops significant shortness of breath at rest and coarse rales 2/3 up bilaterally. The AGACNP suspects acute pulmonary edema due to papillary muscle rupture and acute mitral valve regurgitation. Which physical finding would support this finding?
  46. A patient with minor head trauma presents for evaluation. Which of the following findings should be followed up with a CT scan to rule out orbital fracture? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  47. Mrs. Forbes is a 69-year-old lady being discharged from the hospital after complications following a cosmetic surgical procedure. She is basically in good health. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine daily, and mild osteoarthritis which is controlled with only prn nonsteroidal use. Her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that in accordance with the most current guidelines published in JNC 8 the appropriate action is to:
  48. When assessing driver safety in the older adult, the AGACNP considers that:
  49. The nursing staff calls to tell you that your 81-year-old male patient is having an acute change in mental status. He is a basically healthy man who was admitted three days ago for inpatient antibiotic management of community acquired pneumonia. His daughter is at the bedside and she is very distraught because she has never seen him like this. She is asking for medication to make him stop acting disoriented. Upon examination the patient is lying in bed, appears calm and happy, but does not recognize his daughter as anyone he knows. He is talking as if he is at home and has company. The AGACNP instructs the daughter that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  50. While discharging a patient following her myocardial infarction, you offer some patient education about medically supervised cardiac rehabilitation. The patient expresses fear of rehab because she was on her treadmill when she had her infarction and now she is afraid of making it happen again. She doesn’t understand how the rehab can force her to exercise her heart but not make her have another cardiac event. The AGACNP explains that the patient will be monitored and that her goal heart rate will be:
  51. During physical examination of a 51-year-old African-American female you appreciate a decrease in her peripheral vision. The rest of her eye examination is within normal limits and she is symptom free. This presentation is consistent with:
  52. Mr. Moffett is a 66-year-old male with a long history of lower extremity edema. All other causes of lower extremity edema have been ruled out and his overall symptom presentation and history are strongly supportive of chronic venous insufficiency. Today he presents with increased itching of both lower legs. Physical exam reveals 2-3+ pitting edema and trophic hyperpigmentation. The AGACNP know that treatment should include:
  53. L.R. is an 84-year-old female patient being treated for pneumonia. Her condition is deteriorating despite aggressive broad spectrum antipseudomonal cephalosporin antibiotic therapy. Induced sputum culture reveals heavy growth of Legionella pneumophilia. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be adjusted to include coverage with:
  54. The AGACNP is treating a patient with a corneal abrasion. The patient has a clear recollection of the mechanism of injury—she was scratched in the eye earlier today with her 18-month-old daughter’s fingernail. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of this patient’s abrasion?
  55. M.T. is a 41-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit. He was admitted to the hospital in septic shock and has been aggressively managed with broad spectrum antibiotics. He has become progressively hypoxemic and the last arterial blood gas revealed a paO2of 58 mm Hg. Chest radiography reveals a “white out” pattern bilaterally. The patient is intubated and ventilated. The AGACNP knows that appropriate management must include:
  56. Teenagers and adults with acute otitis media can often be treated with “watchful waiting” given the high incidence of spontaneous resolution and low risk of poor outcomes. Which of the following is an absolute indication to begin antibiotic therapy at the time of diagnosis?
  57. Mr. Bowers is on mechanical ventilation for respiratory support through an episode of septic pneumonia. Due the extensive lobar consolidation it was very difficult to keep Mr. Bowers oxygenated and he required very high FIO2s and PEEP. The AGACNP knows that the primary concern with FIO2s > 60% is:
  58. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) occurs when an overwhelming systemic insult results in which maladaptive physiologic response? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  59. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by which abnormality of ventilation and perfusion?
  60. George Schulz is a 69-year-old male who presents for evaluation of acute foot pain. It is so painful that he cannot walk on it without assistance. At first he denies any significant medical history, but then reveals that he has been diagnosed with dyslipidemia and hypertension but stopped taking his medications because he couldn’t afford it. Pulses are not palpable but are audible by Doppler. The extremity is pale and shiny with decreased hair growth, suspecting peripheral arterial disease, the AGACNP expects which additional finding?
  61. G.T. is a 40-year-old male who is under your case for long term management of secondary osteoarthritis. Today he asks if he can take a medication for anxiety. Further assessment reveals that he is in a relationship that has been very stressful; his girlfriend wants very much to get married and start a family, and he does not. He admits that he no longer feels they are compatible and acknowledges that he needs to end this relationship. He is sure that this is the source of his anxiety. The best approach would be to:
  62. During the physical examination of a 31-year-old female, the AGACNP appreciates a bifurcate uvula. The most appropriate action would be to:
  63. During routine immigration screening a 29-year-old male patient from Mexico has a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test at 17 mm induration. He reports no known history of tuberculosis (TB) infection or exposure, or vaccination with the BCG vaccine. Chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of TB exposure. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate next step is to:
  64. Clinical diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) include all of the following except:
  65. While managing a patient in acute pulmonary edema, the AGACNP monitors the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. When this pressure falls below 12 mm Hg it suggests that:
  66. All of the following are important elements of the immediate management of penetrating eye injury except:
  67. While evaluating a patient with diastolic failure due to a long history of uncontrolled hemochromatosis, the AGACNP appreciates an extra heart sound just before the S1heart sound. This sound is most likely a(n):
  68. Secondary hypertension occurs in approximately 10% of all patients with hypertension, and requires management of the underlying problem in order to eliminate the cause. Which of the following is not a secondary cause of hypertension?
  69. L.M, is a 26-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset vertigo this morning. He describes a strong sense of the room spinning and can barely walk without feeling nauseous. The vertigo is reproducible when his neck is rotated suddenly left or right. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is not indicated? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  70. A 36-year-old female presents complaining of left leg swelling. She describes the onset as acute over the last day or two, and says it feels “tight and throbbing.” She denies any significant medical history and says the only medication she takes is oral contraception, which she has taken since she was 15 years old. The AGACNP first orders:
  71. The primary neurotransmitter implicated in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is:
  72. Mr. Avila is an 82-year-old male being counseled about the risks and benefits of his upcoming abdominal surgery. While considering risk factors for atelectasis, pneumonia and other pulmonary complications, the AGACNP advises that the greatest risk comes from:
  73. The female AGACNP is practicing with a cardiology group and sees patients one day a week in the outpatient office. A 49-year-old female presents for follow-up after her admission for infective endocarditis. She is recovering well, and says that she is going to be more proactive about her health. She admits to not having had any of her regular health screenings for years, and asks if she can have her Pap performed at this office. The AGACNP:
  74. The AGACNP is seeing a patient who was transferred from the correctional facility for evaluation. He has a profound purulent discharge from his right eye. The conjunctive is erythematous and there is mild photosensitivity. The inmate denies any real eye pain, just says that it is extremely uncomfortable. Treatment for this patient is likely to include:
  75. Ms. Ewing is a 78-year-old female who lives in a long term care facility because her dementia has progressed to the point at which her family cannot provide the necessary safety measures at home. In addition to her absent short term memory she has developed some affective changes and most recently is demonstrating sexual disinhibition. While considering management options, the AGACNP knows that all of the following are medications are options for the management of disinhibition except:
  76. A patient recently had a nasal packing inserted for management of refractory epistaxis. One week later he presents with fatigue, a headache “inside of his nose” and a feeling generally unwell. The AGACNP considers:
  77. A 55-year-old female patient presents with a fever of 103.4° F. She was treated approximately 10 days ago at urgent care for a sinus infection, but two days ago the right side of her fact started to hurt, and today she has significant swelling of the right orbit and eyelid. The eyelid is very edematous and there is purulent drainage noted. The priority of care for this patient begins with:
  78. Which of the following is the best indicator that pulmonary rehabilitation has been successful in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  79. Mrs. Marriott is being discharged to home after being managed for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She is currently feeling well but her ejection fraction after optimal diuresis and fluid management is 29%. The AGACNP knows that her discharge medications must include:
  80. Which of the following is an accurate statement with respect to the assessment of delirium in the geriatric patient?
  81. Mrs. Warner is a 57-year-old female who presents with unplanned weight loss. Chest radiography reveals diffuse hyperlucency of the left lung and in the lower half of the right lung. The AGACNP knows that the differential diagnosis for hyperlucency include all of the following except:
  82. When evaluating a patient with epistaxis, which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of a more serious etiology and posterior packing?
  83. R.M. is a 15-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with his mother. Mom says he has been complaining that his throat hurts so badly he cannot even swallow saliva. According to Mom R.M. is not the type to complain, but he is in so much pain with his throat he is almost crying. He has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications. He has no allergies of which his mother is aware. Upon physical examination he is febrile with a temperature of 102.4° F and he is a bit tachycardic, but other vital signs or normal. Inspection of the throat is basically unremarkable—the AGACNP does not appreciate any abscesses, edema, or exudate; there may be some slight erythema. The AGACNP becomes suspicious that the patient:
  84. Mr. Stossel is a 66-year-old male patient who was admitted for management of acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. Over a period of hours he has developed acute shortness of breath, coarse rales to auscultation, and Kerley B lines on chest radiography. Arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.34, pCO2of 30 mm Hg, and paO2 of 59 mm Hg. The AGACNP anticipates which of the following findings on physical examination?
  85. According to the revised criteria in DSM-V, the primary difference between panic attacks and panic disorder is that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  86. Mr. Wilson is a 71-year-old male who has been treated with prn short acting anticholinergics for his COPD. Last week he developed an exacerbation that required a 4 day hospitalization for support and stabilization. He was discharged on a five day course of prednisone and now presents for follow-up. The AGACNP knows that his outpatient medication regimen should be adjusted to include:

What is the primary difference in patient management between high risk non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and the low risk non-ST elevation MI patient?
J.T. is a 26-year-old female patient being evaluated for eye discharge. She says that for the last few days she has developed this sticky, string-like discharge in both eyes. She denies any pain or visual changes, but does admit to a sense of “something in my eyes” and that her eyes itch a lot. Physical examination reveals injected conjunctiva, rope-like discharge bilaterally; pupil response is equal and brisk in both eyes. Which factor in the patient’s history would be supportive of the most likely diagnosis? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
The pathophysiology of endogenous depression is best described as
The diagnostic study most supportive of a diagnosis of pericarditis is:
A 31-year-old male presents to urgent care because he has something in his eye. He was changing the oil under his car and says that something dropped into his eye. He is not having any pain, in fact he waited a day before coming in because he thought it would work itself out. Physical exam reveals a black 1 mm foreign body visible on the corneal surface. The most appropriate intervention is to:
A patient with pericarditis is most appropriately treated with:
Which of the following is not a risk factor for thoracic aneurysm?
The “MONA” acronym provides guidance for immediate interventions in the patient with:
Mr. Sloane is a 36-year-old male patient who presents for treatment of eye pain. He has no significant medical history and does not take any daily or over-the-counter medications. His only recent history is nighttime allergies for which he takes occasional diphenhydramine with good relief. He has had some throbbing in his eye for the last few days on and off but just ignored it; today he says it is flat out painful and he had to come to the emergency department. The eye is throbbing and painful, and he reports generalized decreased vision. The pupil is dilated to 5 mm and non-reactive to light. The eye conjunctiva is reddened. The next step in the diagnostic evaluation should be:
The AGACNP counsels a patient with recurrent epistaxis that the most common cause of nose bleeding is
The geriatric depression scale (GDS) is a commonly used tool to diagnose depression in the elderly population. It comes in a variety of forms for maximal utility. When administering the geriatric depression scale to patients, the AGACNP recognizes that it is extremely important to:
Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is a significant problem impacting morbidity, mortality and the cost of inpatient health care. Data-supported mechanisms to reduce the risk for VAP include all of the following except:
Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in the patient having an acute myocardial infarction include all of the following except:
Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to risk for or occurrence of elder abuse? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

Nursing is a very highly regulated profession. There are over 100 boards of nursing and national nursing associations throughout the United States and its territories. Their existence helps regulate, inform, and promote the nursing profession. With such numbers, it can be difficult to distinguish between BONs and nursing associations, and overwhelming to consider various benefits and options offered by each.

Both boards of nursing and national nursing associations have significant impacts on the nurse practitioner profession and scope of practice. Understanding these differences helps lend credence to your expertise as a professional. In this Assignment, you will practice the application of such expertise by communicating a comparison of boards of nursing and professional nurse associations. You will also share an analysis of your state board of nursing.

To Prepare:

Assume that you are leading a staff development meeting on regulation for nursing practice at your healthcare organization or agency.

Review the NCSBN and ANA websites to prepare for your presentation.

The Assignment: (9- to 10-slide PowerPoint presentation)

1. Develop a 9- to 10-slide Voice-Over PowerPoint Presentation that addresses the following:

Describe the differences between a board of nursing and a professional nurse association.

Describe the geographic distribution, academic credentials, practice positions, and licensure status of members of the board for your specific region/area. East North Central /Illinois

Who is on the board?

How does one become a member of the board?

Describe at least one federal regulation for healthcare.

How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare (e.g., CMS, OSHA, and EPA)?

Has there been any change to the regulation within the past 5 years? Explain.

Describe at least one state regulation related to general nurse scope of practice.

How does this regulation influence the nurse’s role?

How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare?

Describe at least one state regulation related to Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs).

How does this regulation influence the nurse’s role?

How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare?

2.Submit your Regulation for Nursing Practice Staff Development Meeting Presentation.

Written Assignment 3: Image and Voice of Nursing – Due Week 9


Students Please Note: This assignment must be submitted to turnitin.com.

The Turnitin originality report MUST be submitted in PDF format. At the link below is a screenshot with instructions: Screenshot with PDF Instructions

Assignments submitted with turnitin reports in any other format will not be graded.

Reference the “Turnitin Requirement” section of the course Syllabus (or Using Turnitin for Assignments on the Topic List Page) for general instructions. Upload both your assignment and the originality report within the assignment link.


Purpose and Overview:

The purpose of this paper is for you to reflect on the historical and current image and voice of nursing and the profession of nursing are affected. You will project how to enhance the image and voice of nursing in the future in order to recruit, retain, and reward nurses.


Guidelines for Writing the Paper

This paper is a comprehensive assessment of nursing image and voice. You will conduct a review of literature about the image and voice of nursing and how it affects rewards, recruitment, and retention in nursing. Future challenges and strategies for improvement will be included.

This assignment, which is in the form of a scholarly paper, is worth 15% of your grade. The paper will be a minimum of 7 double-spaced pages in length and maximum of 14 pages, excluding the title sheet and the reference list, and minimally must address these criteria:

  1. Description of historical image of nursing. 
  2. Overview of how nursing image is portrayed by, and affected by, the media. Include various forms of media such as print, television, and film media 
  3. Explanation of how nursing leaders and nursing staff impact image. 
  4. Description of how the image of nursing can be improved. Combine a summary of findings from the literature with your thoughts; include at least two behaviors you can implement to improve the image of nursing. 
  5. Future challenges and summary. Briefly summarize the past image of nursing, the current image of nursing, and projections for the future image. Summarize the importance of image to nursing as a profession.


APA format of paper includes:

  • Title page
  • Body of paper: references cited in paper, margins, page numbers, paragraph structure, use of headings.
  • References: correct APA citation; minimum of five professional references

Submit your assignment using the Submission link.


Mentor’s tip for this paper:

The references listed in the back of From Silence to Voice may be helpful to identify possible resources for this paper.

Note: These directions will be used to evaluate and grade your assignment. Please refer to the details when preparing your assignment.