Child nutrition

QUESTION

nursing

I need a simple easy to understnd powerpoint on child nutrition, include for example: (portion sizes, food pyramid graphics) AND an outline in APA format of that powerpoint. no specific number of slides.

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Psychology homework help

HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
 
ASSIGNMENT 2 ― A Comparison of the Scoreboard & Tomasulo Approaches and Quick Revisions of Key Concepts
 
 
Totals of Assignment 2: 15 marks
 
(Q1) (5 marks) [Quick Revisions on Key Concepts] Determine whether each of the following statement is (T)rue or (F)alse. (1 mark for each question)
 

  • Clock rate reduction may not help reducing power consumption. T          F
  • Usually recompilation of source is needed for superscalar architectures. T          F
  • Loop unrolling always requires more registers to execute the original loop. T          F
  • The time required to “fill” and “drain” a pipeline increases the speedup. T          F
  • Data hazards occur when an instruction depends on the result of the next instruction still existed in the pipeline. T          F

 
 
 
Answer:
 
 
 
 
(Q2) (10 marks) [A Comparison of Scoreboard & Tomasulo’s Computers] Assume the latency characteristics for producer-consumer instruction pairs given as below:
 

Instruction producing result Instruction using result Latency
Floating-point ALU op. Another floating point ALU op. 6
Floating-point ALU op. STORE floating point 4
LOAD Floating-point Floating point ALU op. 2
LOAD Floating-point STORE floating point 1

 
 
Consider the following code sequence:
 
addd  f7, f3, f4    ; f3  + f4  -> f7
multd f6, f7, f5   ; f7 * f5 -> f6
multd f8, f7, f5   ; 2nd multiply instruction
 
when executed on the Scoreboard based computer as compared to the same program fragment executed on the Tomasulo based computer. Carefully answer the following questions. In all the questions, you can simply assume both Scoreboard and Tomasulo computers have sufficient number of functional units, including at least one floating-point adder and two floating-point multipliers, for the execution of the above program fragment. Besides, you can assume the number of cycles required for the EXEC stage of  “addd” or “multd” is 6 as specified in the above latency table.
 
(a) (6 marks) When the ‘addd’ instruction already enters its EXEC stage, and is computing the value of f7, clearly state whether the two subsequent ‘multd’ instructions can be issued or not for the execution of the above program fragment on EACH of the Scoreboard/Tomasulo’s computer. In addition, for each “yes” or “no” answer you provide for each specific computer, give a short and concise explanation to justify your answer. For example, here is a sample format for your answer:

  • for Scoreboard – No, the two instructions cannot be issued BECAUSE ……
  • for Tomasulo   – Yes, the two instructions can be issued BECAUSE ……..

Answer:
 
 
 
 
(b) (4 marks) For the Scoreboard computer, calculate the total number of stalls involved for executing (i.e. from issue up to the ‘Exec. Completion’ stage, here, the write-result stage is excluded in consideration) the above program fragment. Besides, justify your answer with a clear explanation. [hint: refer to p. 55 of Mod-2 notes, OR the 2nd paragraph of p. A-72 in our reference book “Computer Architecture – A Quantitative Approach”]
 
Answer:
 
 
 
 
 

  • END of Assignment 2 –
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NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least worrisome type.

 

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer. A transudate is essentially just water and can occur as a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary vessels. It typically implies that the some condition has produced an imbalance in colloid-hydrostatic pressures, such as CHF or hypoalbuminemia. While it can represent a serious problem, it may also represent a transient imbalance. Conversely, “B” is not correct as an exudate has more protein in it and implies a condition characterized by protein leaking from vessels, such as a malignancy or some serious systemic stressor. “C” is not correct—a chyliform effusion is characterized by fat and indicates a pathology causing massive triglyceride degradation. “D” is not correct as a hemorrhagic effusion is blood and typically means traumatic injury.
  • Question 2

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0 out of 1 points

Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics. She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale. She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure. Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to confirm the diagnosis?

 

Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. It is the most widely used diagnostic tool as it rapidly and precisely can outline the thoracic and abdominal aorta. “A” is not the correct answer—there are radiographic findings that suggest thoracic aneurysm, but they need confirmation by CT. “B” is not the correct answer as ultrasound is not nearly as precise as a CT scan. “C” is not correct—MRI is only indicated when the patient cannot have a contrast CT.
  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer; men are at higher risk for long-term care placement than women. In addition to male gender, other risk factors include age over 80, living alone, bowel or bladder incontinence, history of falls, dysfunctional coping, and intellectual impairment.
  • Question 4

0 out of 1 points

A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of the following except a:

 

Response Feedback: “C” is the correct answer. If bleeding is successfully stopped with 20 minutes of directed pressure, there will be residual blood and clot formation. This is evacuated either by gentle suction or having the patient gently blow. Residual blood and formed clot may present as a sudden gush of dark blood or discharge with or without a clot—these are all typical expected findings. However, if bleeding is not stopped, it will continue as a bright red steady trickle. When this occurs, more invasive measures are indicated.
  • Question 5

0 out of 1 points

Kevin is a 14-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a fever of 102.5° F and significant right ear pain. He appears quite ill and says he feels nauseous. Otoscopic evaluation reveals pain to palpation, a very erythematous and bulging tympanic membrane with bullous myringitis. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be selected to cover:

 

Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacteria that infects the head and neck in immunocompetent persons, and is the primary treatment target when treating otitis media, bacterial sinusitis, and bacterial pharyngitis. “A” is not correct—while likely on broken skin and soft tissue, it is not common in the ear, nose, or throat unless specific risk factors exist. “B” is not correct—this is much more likely in an immunocompromised patient or a patient on mechanical ventilation. “C” is not correct—it is the second most common organism, but strep is the primary treatment target.
  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism?

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. This patient presents from the outpatient population where the most common cause of pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, and is the primary treatment target for any patient being treated empirically. “A” is not correct—while the patient’s sexual orientation is offered in the provided history, there is no indication that he has HIV/AIDS or any other condition characterized by immunosuppression that would increase his risk for this organism. “B” is not correct, as this organism is not typically seen in the outpatient population without specific risk, e.g. immunosuppression or chronic ventilator therapy. “C” is not the correct answer as this organism is not likely absent specific risk such as instrumentation or known colonization.
  • Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?

 

Response Feedback: “B” is the correct answer. Vascular dementia is a consequence of vascular disease, and is more likely to occur in patients with risk factors for target organ damage, such as hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes. “A” is not a distinct risk factor for vascular dementia; it is a risk for Alzheimer’s dementia. “C” likewise increases risk for Parkinson’s dementia, but does not present a risk for vascular dementia. “D” is not a risk factor for vascular dementia. Although there may be some familial risk for certain vascular diseases that may lead to vascular dementia, there is no clear familial tendency for this type of dementia.

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

  • Question 91

1 out of 1 points

A 31-year-old male presents to urgent care because he has something in his eye. He was changing the oil under his car and says that something dropped into his eye. He is not having any pain, in fact he waited a day before coming in because he thought it would work itself out. Physical exam reveals a black 1 mm foreign body visible on the corneal surface. The most appropriate intervention is to:

 

Response Feedback: “C” is the correct answer. The nature of the injury suggests an external foreign body and it is visible to inspection. The absence of symptoms suggests that this is a simple external foreign body that will be easily removed with a saline soaked sterile swab. If unable to remove it this way, the more invasive Morgan lens or another method of eye irrigation may be utilized – but the least invasive acceptable method should always be tried first. “A” is not correct—there are not symptoms consistent with corneal abrasion. “B” is not correct as the history does not suggest an embedded or internal foreign body.
  • Question 92

0 out of 1 points

A patient with pericarditis is most appropriately treated with:

 

Response Feedback: “C” is the correct answer. Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, most often due to viral infection. The medication of choice is an NSAID. “A” is not correct—although isolated cases of pericardial inflammation are bacterial and require antibiotics, this is very uncommon. “B” is incorrect—NSAIDs generally control pain adequately and the escalation to opiate analgesia is rarely indicated. “D” is incorrect—as with choice “C” NSAIDs control pain adequately in most cases and use of corticosteroids while appropriate for NSAID-refractory cases, is uncommon.
  • Question 93

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a risk factor for thoracic aneurysm?

 

Response Feedback: “B” is the correct answer. There are multiple risk factors for thoracic aneurysm, including “A,” “C,” and “D” above. However, aortic valve disease, not mitral valve disease, is correlated with increased risk. A variety of other factors including family history, smoking, and atherosclerosis, also increase risk.
  • Question 94

1 out of 1 points

The “MONA” acronym provides guidance for immediate interventions in the patient with:

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer. MONA stands for Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, and Aspirin, and should be considered for every patient with acute coronary syndrome. Morphine may not always be used—the general guideline is to administer to any patient who does not get pain relief with three doses of nitroglycerin—but it should be considered and administered if appropriate.
  • Question 95

1 out of 1 points

Mr. Sloane is a 36-year-old male patient who presents for treatment of eye pain. He has no significant medical history and does not take any daily or over-the-counter medications. His only recent history is nighttime allergies for which he takes occasional diphenhydramine with good relief. He has had some throbbing in his eye for the last few days on and off but just ignored it; today he says it is flat out painful and he had to come to the emergency department. The eye is throbbing and painful, and he reports generalized decreased vision. The pupil is dilated to 5 mm and non-reactive to light. The eye conjunctiva is reddened. The next step in the diagnostic evaluation should be:

 

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer. This is a classic presentation of acute angle closure glaucoma, the patient likely had an underlying anatomic abnormality that was exacerbated by the anticholinergic properties of diphenhydramine. Assessment of intraocular pressure via tonometry must be performed and if elevated will confirm diagnosis. Once elevated pressure is confirmed, the condition will be treated. “B” and “C” are not correct—the first diagnostic evaluation must be tonometric pressure; if pressure is normal, acute angle closure glaucoma is ruled out and then imaging may be indicted depending upon the differential diagnoses. “D” is not correct; if glaucoma is confirmed than ophthalmology will be consulted.
  • Question 96

1 out of 1 points

The AGACNP counsels a patient with recurrent epistaxis that the most common cause of nose bleeding is:

 

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer. Statistically most nose bleeding is cause by the irritation of nose picking, and patients of all ages should be evaluated for this when presenting with a complaint of recurrent nose bleed. “B,” “C,” and “D” are also causes and are all part of the differential diagnosis and will guide the history of present illness, but “A” is most common and the first thing to be considered; similarly, while patients may not realize or acknowledge that this is a factor, if no cause is identified, counseling about the avoidance of nose picking may ultimately result in improvement of symptoms.
  • Question 97

0 out of 1 points

The geriatric depression scale (GDS) is a commonly used tool to diagnose depression in the elderly population. It comes in a variety of forms for maximal utility. When administering the geriatric depression scale to patients, the AGACNP recognizes that it is extremely important to:

NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings

Response Feedback: “B” is the correct answer. All forms of the GDS require one word “yes/no” answers; the tool cannot be scored with more ambiguous or scaled scoring. “A” is incorrect—the tool helps establish a diagnosis of depression, and then the etiology will be pursued. “C” is not correct, in fact the one word answer format, different from most tools that use “1 to 5” scaled scoring, allows the tool to be used in those with more significant cognitive impairment. “D” is not correct as the tool can evaluate change after initiation or change in drug therapy.
  • Question 98

1 out of 1 points

Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is a significant problem impacting morbidity, mortality and the cost of inpatient health care. Data-supported mechanisms to reduce the risk for VAP include all of the following except:

 

Response Feedback: “B” is the correct answer. Strategies both pre and post intubation to reduce the likelihood of VAP have been extensively studied, and there are numerous data-supported strategies including those presented in choices “A,” “C,” and “D” above. Conversely, while “B” has been proposed as a possible strategy, data are conflicted. Endotracheal tube cuff biofilm formation and bacterial colonization are proposed mechanisms by which ventilator acquired pneumonia occurs, and there are several strategies in use to target this, such as antibiotic impregnated, chlorhexidine coated and silver coated endotracheal tubes. Cost and effectiveness data continue to emerge.
  • Question 99

0 out of 1 points

Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in the patient having an acute myocardial infarction include all of the following except:

 

Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. A history of hemorrhagic ophthalmic condition is a relative contraindication; a risk benefit analysis must be considered and thrombolytics may be used. Conversely, “A,” “B,” and “C” above are all absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.
  • Question 100

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to risk for or occurrence of elder abuse?

 

Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. There are a variety of theories regarding the etiology of caregiver abuse, and a common theme is that the greater the stressors and/or burden on the caregiver, the greater the likelihood of some form of caregiver abuse, whether psychological, physical, or neglect. Otherwise “healthy” people can become abusive if the demands placed upon them are great enough; this is one of the reasons that respite care is so important. “A,” “B,” and “C” are true statements. Caregiver stress is a risk factor, the cycle of learned violence suggests that those subjected to violence are at greater risk of becoming violent, and the greater the physical and/or mental impairment of the patient, the higher the risk for an abusive situation.NURS-6550 Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers – Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings
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Psychological Issues

Discussion: Psychological Issues

The problem lay buried, unspoken, for many years in the minds of American women. […] Each suburban wife struggled with it alone. As she made the beds, shopped for groceries, matched slipcover material, ate peanut butter sandwiches with her children, chauffeured Cub Scouts and Brownies, lay beside her husband at night—she was afraid to ask even of herself the silent question—“Is this all?”
—Betty Friedan, The Feminine Mystique

Betty Friedan’s seminal work about social and psychological issues facing some women in the middle of the twentieth century opened with the question she saw as plaguing suburban wives: Is this all? During Friedan’s time, college graduation rates for women were actually dropping compared to the previous generation as postwar World War II economic prosperity led many women to abandon career aspirations in favor of raising families. The Feminine Mystique tells the story of a particular group of women, and as critics are correct to point out, it does not speak for the situation of many women of color and women who were not privileged socioeconomically. It did, however, expose the way that social and psychological factors came together to create gender differences in psychological wellbeing.
In the 21st century, gender differences in morbidity and mortality related to psychological issues still exist. Your course text highlights gender differences in depression, eating disorders, and suicide, but differences exist regarding other issues as well. Antisocial and avoidant personality disorders are more common in men, while borderline and histrionic personality disorders are more often seen in women. While there is some biological evidence for these differences, there is a greater amount of evidence that supports the influence of psychosocial factors related to gender socialization and gender roles themselves.
For this Discussion, you will examine gender differences related to and biopsychosocial causes of a particular psychological issue.
To prepare

  • Consider the following three populations and psychological issues and select one to use for this Discussion:
    • Autism spectrum disorder among children
    • Conduct disorder among adolescents
    • Panic disorder among adults
  • Search the Walden Library to identify any biopsychosocial risk factors that may contribute to the psychological issue you selected.
  • Identify how gender influences prevalence rates, diagnosis, and treatment of this disorder.
By Day 4

Post a description of the issue you selected; identify any biopsychosocial risk factors; and discuss how gender influences prevalence rates, diagnosis, and treatment.

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Research one new organization, coalition, private or government funded project. The organization must play a global role in health; it cannot, for example, only work within the United States.

  1. Research one new organization, coalition, private or government funded project. The organization must play a global role in health; it cannot, for example, only work within the United States.
  1. Summarize what you learn about the organization. 
  2. Be sure to include the organization’s website, so others can go to the website for additional information.
  3. Title your post with the name of the organization you have researched.
    1. Cover the following points:
    2. Name of organization’s Mission and Vision (be sure to include who they help and where they help them)
    • Project(s) (identify and explain one or more project)
    • Project’s/Projects’ Impact on Global Health
    • Identify one national or international nursing organization that could partner with this organization in providing health care.  Develop an outline of a proposal for this partnership. 
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Describe the strategic role and purpose of organizational behavior for the company selected in Week One.

Imagine you have been working for a hospital for several years. Your company is planning to make some significant changes and one of the areas being considered to explore is the company’s organizational behavior. To spark discussion among colleagues, you have been asked to create a presentation that outlines the organizational behavior within a health care company. Using the company selected in Week One, create an 8- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that addresses the following:
  • Describe the strategic role and purpose of organizational behavior for the company selected in Week One.
  • Identify the organizational factors of organizational behavior for the company selected in Week One.
  • Identify the impact, including the strategic approach and application of organizational behavior for the company selected in Week One.
Format your PowerPoint® according to APA guidelines. Include a title page, detailed speaker notes, and a references page. Cite 3 peer-reviewed or scholarly sources plus others similar references to support your presentation.
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