. Question : Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? 6 to 8 weeks 8 to 12 months Until the iron level is normal The rest of one’s life Question 2. : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? Nasal turbinates Alveolar macrophages Cilia Irritant receptors on the nares Question 3. : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG IgM T cells Question 4. : Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? Increasing rate and depth of breathing Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin Question 5. : Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults. The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively. Question 6. : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Norepinephrine Epinephrine Cortisol Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Question 7. : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Cyanocobalamin by oral intake Vitamin B₁₂ by injection Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Folate by oral intake Question 8. : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? Syphilis Herpes simplex virus Chlamydia Chancroid Question 9. : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are inflamed. The nodes fill with purulent exudate. The nodes are not properly functioning. Question 10. : Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Question 11. : What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? 104/55 mm Hg 106/58 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg Question 12. : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of: Epinephrine and aldosterone Norepinephrine and cortisol Epinephrine and norepinephrine Acetylcholine and cortisol Question 13. : Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection? Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Influenzavirus Adenoviruses Rhinovirus Question 14. : What is the function of erythrocytes? Tissue oxygenation Hemostasis Infection control Allergy response Question 15. : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by: 2 years 1 year 10 months 5 months Question 16. Where are Kupffer cells located? Kidneys Liver Pancreas Spleen Question 17. Stress-induced norepinephrine results in: Pupil constriction Peripheral vasoconstriction Increased sweat gland secretions Decreased blood pressure Question 18. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? Decreased flow resistance Fewer alveoli Stiffening of the chest wall Improved elastic recoil Question 19. Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma? An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency Question 20. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Thymus gland Regional lymph nodes Bone marrow Spleen Question 21. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus Myasthenia gravis Question 22. Where are Langerhans cells found? Skin Intestinal lining Kidney Thyroid Question 23. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Nausea Fatigue Hair loss Weight loss Question 24. Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process? Autosomal recessive inheritance Autosomal dominant inheritance Infection Malignancy Question 25. What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera? Decreased erythrocyte count Destruction of erythrocytes Increased blood viscosity Neurologic involvement Question 26. What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? Encephalocele Meningocele Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Question 27. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? Reticulocyte count Serum transferring Hemoglobin Serum vitamin B12 Question 28. The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Toxigenicity Pathogenicity Virulence Question 29. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Cancer cells Bacteria Fungus Question 30. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 31. Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Erythrocytes Question 32. Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Decrease in urine output Question 33. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: Hemolytic shock Anaphylaxis Necrotizing vasculitis Systemic erythematosus Question 34. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Hyperpolarization Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Question 35. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children? Chronic respiratory infections Adenotonsillar hypertrophy Obligatory mouth breathing Paradoxic breathing Question 36. Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area? Vulva or penis Umbilicus Thighs Lower abdomen Question 37. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: Extends vertically from the trachea. Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus. Comes into contact with food and drink first. Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate. Question 38. Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Monocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Question 39. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? Greater quantities of histamine More histamine receptors Greater quantities of IgE A deficiency in epinephrine Question 40. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood? Superior vena cava Aorta Inferior vena cava Pulmonary veins Question 41. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Question 42. In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days. 30 to 50; 80 60 to 80; 120 90 to 110; 140 120 to 130; 150 Question 43. Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? Viruses Bacteria and fungi Protozoa and Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Question 44. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom? Intermittent murmur Lack of symptoms Need for surgical repair Triad of congenital defects Question 45. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? Superior vena cava Pulmonary veins Pulmonary artery Coronary veins Question 46. : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? The virus does not circulate in the blood. It does not have antibody receptors. It resists agglutination. The virus is a soluble antigen. Question 47. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? Passive-acquired immunity Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity Question 48. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? Posterior pituitary Thyroid Parathyroid Anterior pituitary Question 49. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is notsuccessful? Flight or fight Alarm Adaptation Arousal Question 50. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? T-cell immunity Alloimmunity Fetal immunity Autoimmunity Question 51. Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? Heads of the femur Distal femurs Heads of the humerus Distal tibias Question 52. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? Small channels called canaliculi Osteocytes within the lacunae Tiny spaces within the lacunae Haversian system Question 53. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive? Stress Greenstick Insufficiency Pathologic Question 54. Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor? Norepinephrine Gamma-aminobutyric acid Serotonin Dopamine Question 55. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Sodium intake Physical inactivity Psychosocial stress Obesity Question 56. : Where is oxytocin synthesized? Hypothalamus Paraventricular nuclei Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary Question 57. An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? C B12 B6 D Question 58. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? Pharmacologic Permissive Synergistic Direct Question 59. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: Positive feedback Negative feedback Neural regulation Physiologic regulation Question 60. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? Esophageal atresia Congenital aganglionic megacolon Pyloric stenosis Galactosemia Question 61. Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Question 62. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Question 63. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry? Down syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Cri du chat Question 64. Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Tendon Ligament Bursa Mesentery Question 65. Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus Hypertension Polycythemia Smoking Question 66. Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance? Secretory Motility Osmotic Small volume Question 67. The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Computed tomographic (CT) scan Cerebrospinal fluid analysis Skull x-ray studies Health history Question 68. Which medical diagnosis is characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon? Lateral epicondylitis Medial tendinitis Bursitis Lateral tendinitis Question 69. Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. Estrogen levels are low. Question 70. The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term? Relativity Survivability Prevalence Incidence Question 71. : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Thyroxine (T4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Triiodothyronine (T3) Question 72. : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Thyroxine Insulin Cortisol. Antidiuretic hormone Question 73. : What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? It becomes thinner. It becomes thicker. It assumes a neutral pH. It undergoes atrophy. Question 74. : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Question 75. : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Twofold Threefold Fourfold Tenfold Question 76. : What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Gradual decrease in estrogen levels Sudden increase of LH Sharp rise in progesterone levels Gradual increase in estrogen levels Question 77. : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? Thalamus Brainstem Frontal lobe Hypothalamus Question 78. : What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? Down syndrome Fragile X syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Question 79. : Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday A depressed Hispanic woman An individual on the second day after hip replacement A man diagnosed with schizophrenia Question 80. : Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? Thyroxine Oxytocin Growth hormone Insulin Question 81. Question : What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases? 10% 30% 50% 70% Question 82. : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome? Turner Klinefelter Down Fragile X Question 83. : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets Osteochondrosis Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Question 84. : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? Increases serum calcium. Decreases serum calcium. Decreases serum magnesium. Increases serum magnesium. Question 85. : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? Procallus Joint capsule Hematoma Elastin fibers Question 86. : Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus. Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. Question 87. : What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? Chondrosarcoma Fibrosarcoma Ewing Sarcoma Osteosarcoma Question 88. Question : Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production Question 89. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Diet high in saturated fats Increased production of cholesterol by the liver Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood Question 90. How do the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults? JRA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation. JRA predominantly affects large joints. JRA has more severe joint pain than adult RA. JRA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom. Question 91. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Question 92. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Frontal lobe Basal ganglia Question 93. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: Decreased production of aqueous humor Increased production of vitreous humor Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Question 94. Question : A complex partial seizure is described as: Alternating of tonic and clonic movements Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute Question 95. Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children. Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Question 96. Question : What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant? A B O AB Question 97. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 98. Question : Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness Question 99. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? Optic (CN I) Abducens (CN VI) Oculomotor (CN III) Trochlear (CN IV) Question 100. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 3 6 9 12  ]]>